Aiims previous years exam paper download pdf

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Model Question Paper for Staff Nurse Exam in Aiims

This page provide you Staff Nurse Aiims previous years exam paper download pdf. Here it is 100 Questions MCQ types. competetive exam pattern.This is a Model Question Paper for Staff Nurse Examination Like – DSSSB Staff Nurse Examination papersPGI Chandigarh Staff Nurse previous year Paper Download. Don’t Forget to Hit Like baton . if you have any query feel free to write a comment. 

 

1. The process in which the size of a cell decreases as a result of a decreasing workload is known as:
a). atrophy.
b). hypertrophy.
c). hyperplasia.
d). metaplasia.
Ans : Atrophy.

2. The process in which one type of cell is replaced by another type of cell not normal for that tissue is known as:
a). atrophy.
b). hypertrophy.
c). hyperplasia.
d). metaplasia.
Ans : metaplasia.

3. The process in which an increase in the number of cells results from an increasing workload is known as:
a). atrophy.
b). hypertrophy.
c). hyperplasia.
d). metaplasia.
Ans : hyperplasia.

4. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:

 

a). atrophy.
b). hypertrophy.
c). hyperplasia.
d). metaplasia.

 

Ans : hypertrophy.
5. A change in cell size, shape, or appearance caused by an external stressor is known as:
a). mitosis.
b). dysplasia.
c). dilation.
d). catabolism.
Ans : dysplasia.
6. The process of cell division, by which the body grows, is known as:
a). mitosis.
b). dysplasia.
c). dilation.
d). catabolism.
Ans : mitosis
7. Cellular changes in response to external stressors are:
a). always a pathological process.
b). always a normal physiological process.
c). never present without an accompanying cancer.
d). none of the above.
Ans : none of the above.
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8. Which of the following adaptive mechanisms for cellular injury is least likely to result in the proliferation of malignant cells?
a). atrophy

 

b). metaplasia
c). dysplasia
d). hyperplasia
Ans : atrophy
9. A patient was unable to breathe for 10 minutes because of a foreign body occluding the airway. The damage that results from this situation is most likely a result of:
a). metaplasia.
b). inflammatory injury.
c). ischemia.
d). hypertrophy.
Ans : ischemia.
10. Which one of the following factors would be contributory to the development of disease conditions in a geriatric patient?
a). genetic predisposition
b). eating habits (diet)
c). infectious pathogens
d). all of the above
Ans : all of the above

 

11. Exposure to which of the following factors would have the greatest risk of causing immediate cellular damage?

 

a). environmental temperature variances
b). nutritional imbalances
c). chemical exposure
d). infectious exposure
Ans : chemical exposure
12. The thick, viscous fluid that fills and gives shape to the cells is the:
a). cytosol.
b). cytokine.
c). cytotoxin.
d). cytoplasm.
Ans : cytoplasm.
13. The nucleus, the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and lysomes are five of the cell’s most important:
a). leukocytes.
b). monocytes.
c). chromatins.
d). organelles.
Ans : organelles.
14. Water comprises approximately how much of the total body weight?
a). 75%

 

b). 60%
c). 40%
d). 35.5%
Ans :  60%
15. The largest compartment containing water in the human body is the:
a). extracellular compartment.
b). interstitial compartment.
c). intravascular compartment.
d). intracellular compartment.
Ans : intracellular compartment.
 
16. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven major functions of cells?
a). conductivity
b). respiration
c). secretion
d). deletion
Ans : deletion
17. Rheumatic fever, asthma, and allergies are examples of:
a). immunologic disorders.
b). renal disorders.
c). endocrine disorders.
d). hematologic disorders.
Ans : immunologic disorders.
18. Diseases caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors are known as:
a). Type II diseases.
b). Level 3 disorders.
c). multifactorial disorders.
d). epidemiological diseases.
Ans : multifactorial disorders.
19. Which of the following is NOT an environmental disease risk?
a. temperature
b. air
c. water
d. genetic background
Ans : genetic background
20. What is the best description regarding the effects of risk factors and disease:
a. If only one risk factor exists, a disease will not occur.
b. The more risk factors present, the greater the risk of disease.
c. Risk factors for disease are so many and various that their effects cannot be calculated.
d. If numerous risk factors are present simultaneously, the result will always be a disease process.
Ans : The more risk factors present, the greater the risk of disease.
21. Due to the degenerative effects seen in aging, the likelihood of disease:
a. will increase.
b. will decrease.
c. will remain the same.
d. none of the above.
Ans : will increase.
22. Certain diseases are common in families, primarily because family members:
a. eat the same food.
b. breathe the same air.
c. have the same genetic predispositions.
d. have the same physiologic responses to stress.
Ans :  have the same genetic predispositions.
23. Hypoperfusion results in:
a. hypoxia.
b. carbon dioxide build-up.
c. acidosis.
d. all of the above.
Ans : all of the above.
 
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions on which oxygen movement and utilization depends as described by the Fick Principle?
a. adequate concentration of inspired oxygen
b. proper tissue perfusion
c. efficient off-loading of oxygen at the tissue level
d. adequate number of white blood cells to carry the oxygen
Ans : adequate number of white blood cells to carry the oxygen.
 
25. A patient was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion. Intravenous therapy would help treat the hypoperfusion by:
a. increasing vasoconstriction.
b. increasing preload.
c. increasing afterload.
d. increasing the heart rate.
Ans :  increasing preload.
 
26. A patient is presenting with hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is least likely to be the cause?
a. cardiogenic.
b. septic.
c. hypovolemic.
d. neurogenic.
Ans : neurogenic.
 
27. A patient is presenting with hypoperfusion, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin below the injury site following a traumatic event. With this limited information, what would be the most likely cause for this presentation?
a. interruption of spinal nerve transmission
b. increasing intrabdominal mass
c. hemorrhagic fluid loss
d. none of the above
Ans :  interruption of spinal nerve transmission
 
28. What type of shock is characterized by hypotension, tachycardia, and laryngeal edema?
a. cardiogenic.
b. anaphylactic.
c. neurogenic.
d. none of the above.
Ans : anaphylactic.
 
29. Alterations in mental status can accompany cardiogenic shock due to:
a. hypoxemia.
b. hypoperfusion.
c. tachycardia.
d. both a and b.
Ans : both a and b.
 
30. Pulmonary edema is characteristic of what classification of hypoperfusion?
a. hypovolemic
b. neurogenic
c. cardiogenic
d. septic
Ans : cardiogenic
 
31. As blood volume is lost due to a traumatic injury, the body’s response is to:
a. increase heart rate and decrease systemic vascular resistance.
b. decrease heart rate and vasoconstrict major veins.
c. increase heart rate and close precapillary sphincters.
d. decrease heart rate and promote peripheral vasoconstriction.
Ans :  increase heart rate and close precapillary sphincters.
 
32. A common cause of damage in primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is:
a. neuroendocrine response.
b. vasodilation and clotting abnormalities.
c. damage to endothelium of the vasculature.
d. inadequate perfusion from a traumatic incident.
Ans :inadequate perfusion from a traumatic incident.
33. Which of the following is NOT part of the body’s response in secondary MODS?
a. catecholamine release is inhibited
b. inflammatory mediators enter the system
c. plasma protein systems are activated
d. release of endorphins contributes to vasodilation
Ans : catecholamine release is inhibited
 
34. The final common pathway of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is:
a. impairment of two or more organ systems.
b. hypoxemia and hypocapnia.
c. hyperperfusion.
d. inflammatory response.
Ans :  impairment of two or more organ systems.
 
35. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?
a. anatomic barriers
b. psychosomatic shields
c. inflammatory response
d. immune response
Ans : psychosomatic shields
 
36. When antigens invade the body, the specialized reaction that follows is the:
a. anatomical response.
b. inflammatory response.
c. immune response.
d. negative feedback.
Ans :  immune response.
 
37. B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
a. directly attacking antigens.
b. neutralizing antigens.
c. producing antibodies.
d. producing antigens.
Ans :producing antibodies.
38. T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
a. directly attacking antigens.
b. neutralizing antigens.
c. producing antibodies.
d. producing antigens.
Ans : directly attacking antigens.
 
39. Which of the following barriers provides the greatest degree of specificity when eliminating foreign substances from the body?
a. anatomical barriers
b. inflammatory response
c. immune response
d. none of the above
Ans : immune response
 
40. Which of the following is considered to be the body’s “first line of defense” in preventing infection and injury?
a. anatomical barriers
b. inflammatory response
c. immune response
d. none of the above
Ans : anatomical barriers
 
41. One of the body’s anatomical barriers to injection and injury is/are the:
a. epithelium.
b. granulocytes.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
Ans : epithelium.
 
42. Following the initial immune response, or “priming,” subsequent exposures to the antigen result in the abundant production of this antibody.
a. IgM
b. IgB
c. IgE
d. IgG
Ans : IgG
 
43. A patient is given antibody therapy in the hospital as a result of an infection. This therapy is an example of:
a. natural immunity.
b. active acquired immunity.
c. passive acquired immunity.
d. iatrogenic infection.
Ans :  passive acquired immunity.
44. All of the following are direct effects of antibodies on antigens EXCEPT:
a. agglutination.
b. neutralization.
c. precipitation.
d. degranulation.
Ans : degranulation.
 
45. In utero protection is accomplished by:
a. enhanced B lymphocyte production.
b. endogenous antibodies of the fetus.
c. maternal ingestion of neonatal vitamins.
d. maternal antibodies delivered via the placenta.
Ans : maternal antibodies delivered via the placenta.
46. Which of the statements below is true regarding cell-mediated immunity?
a. B cells are responsible for directly attacking pathogens.
b. T cells lack variation and are limited to antigen recognition.
c. T cells lack variation and are limited to antibody production.
d. T cells directly attack and destroy foreign antigen-bearing cells.
Ans :  T cells directly attack and destroy foreign antigen-bearing cells.
 
47. One of the goals of antiviral therapy is:
a. destruction of the infected host cell.
b. inactivation of the virus’s cell membrane.
c. disruption of the virus’s various cellular structures.
d. encapsulating the virus.
Ans :  destruction of the infected host cell.
48. Which of the following is NOT a direct effect of antibodies on antigens?
a. agglutination
b. precipitation
c. degradation
d. neutralization
Ans : degradation
 
49. An antibody is:
a. a substance that invades the body.
b. the body’s response to an invading substance.
c. the term used to describe long-term protection from infection or disease.
d. a substance that will attack any invading antigen.
Ans : the body’s response to an invading substance.
50. Antigens that can trigger the immune response are known as:
a. immunoantigens.
b. antipathogens.
c. antiimmunogens.
d. immunogens.

Ans : immunogens.

51. A hapten is:
a. a large molecule likely to initiate the immune response.
b. a small molecule likely to initiate the immune response.
c. a small molecule that can combine with a large molecule to initiate the immune response.
d. a large molecule that must be present in sufficient quantities to initiate the immune response.
Ans : a small molecule that can combine with a large molecule to initiate the immune response.
52. Which of the following statements about immunity and inflammation is true?
a. Inflammation directly targets specific antigens.
b. Immunity involves one type of specific immunoglobulin.
c. Inflammation involves lymphocytes only.
d. Immunity and inflammation are independent functions.
Ans : Immunity involves one type of specific immunoglobulin.
 
53. The immune response ability begins to develop in:
a. the toddler.
b. the infant.
c. the neonate.
d. utero.
Ans : utero.
54. The diminishment in the effectiveness of the immune response in the elderly can be attributed to:
a. diminished function of T cells.
b. decrease in the number of circulating T cells.
c. enlargement of the thyroid gland in response to aging.
d. trophoblast cells failure.
Ans : diminished function of T cells.
55. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions carried out during the inflammation response?
a. removal of unwanted substances
b. stimulation of asepsis
c. walling off of the infected and inflamed area
d. promotion of healing
Ans : stimulation of asepsis
56. The inflammatory response responds ___________ the immune response when a foreign substance invades the body.
a. slower than
b. faster than
c. simultaneous with
d. with more specificity than
Ans : faster than
57. Which of the following is NOT an acute inflammatory response?
a. thrombolysis
b. vasodilation
c. vascular permeability
d. cellular infiltration
Ans : thrombolysis
58. Mast cells activate the inflammatory response through the two functions of:
a. angigenesis and synthesis.
b. immunologic permeability and cellular permeability.
c. degranulation and synthesis.
d. decompensation and immunogenesis.
Ans : degranulation and synthesis.
59. Mast cells synthesize prostaglandins, which:
a. cause pain.
b. cause increased vascular permeability.
c. suppress histamine release.
d. all of the above.
Ans : all of the above.
 
60. Degranulation of mast cells is initiated by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. physical injury.
b. immunology processes.
c. histamine release.
d. chemical agents.
Ans : histamine release
 
61. Which of the following is true regarding leukotrienes?
a. they are released by B lymphocytes
b. they promote faster effects than histamines
c. they are known as SRS-As
d. they inhibit vascular permeability
Ans : they are known as SRS-As
 
62. Mast cell degranulation results in the release of histamines, among other vasoactive substances. Which of the following is a response to histamine release?
a. increase in blood flow at the site of injury
b. release of leukotrienes
c. suppression of lysosomal enzymes
d. decrease in vascular wall permeability
Ans :  increase in blood flow at the site of injury
63. The attraction of white cells to the site of inflammation during degranulation is:
a. catabolism.
b. chemotaxis.
c. neurotaxis.
d. apoptosis.
Ans : chemotaxis.
 
64. Which of the following is true regarding the classic pathway of the complement system?
a. a multitude of antigen-antibody complexes are required for activation
b. activation of the pathway begins with activation of complement factor C-9
c. phagocytosis is an end result of the pathway
d. none of the above
Ans : phagocytosis is an end result of the pathway
65. The actions of the white blood cells and other components of inflammation are mediated by the:
a. plasma protein systems.
b. complement systems.
c. coagulation systems.
d. kinin systems.
Ans : plasma protein systems.
66. Acute inflammation, as a negative feedback mechanism of the body, can be triggered by:
a. nutritional imbalances.
b. traumatic incidents.
c. hypoxia.
d. all of the above.
Ans : all of the above.
67. Which of the following activities is NOT one of the functions of substances released or synthesized by mast cells in the inflammation response?
a. increase of blood flow at the inflammation site
b. attraction of white blood cells to the site
c. encouraging release of lysosomal enzymes
d. causation of pain
Ans : encouraging release of lysosomal enzymes
68. The predominant antibody present in mucous membranes is:
a. IgA.
b. IgE.
c. IgG.
d. IgM.
Ans : IgA.
 
69. Which of the following is NOT consistent with an IgE mediated response to antigens?
a. profound vasoconstriction
b. flushed, itching skin
c. increased heart rate
d. nausea and vomiting
Ans :  profound vasoconstriction
70. Cytokines are produced by a wide variety of cells. Of the following, which is NOT true of cytokines?
a. they act as intercellular messengers
b. they are involved in induction of neutrophilia
c. they differ greatly from lymphokines
d. they play a role in prevention of viral migration
Ans : they differ greatly from lymphokines
 
71. Which of the following statements is true regarding the coagulation cascade?
a. it is activated by many substances released during tissue destruction and infection
b. it decreases vascular permeability
c. it suppresses the inflammatory response
d. it has as its chief product bradykinin
Ans : it is activated by many substances released during tissue destruction and infection
72. Which of the following occurs during an acute inflammatory response?
a. blood flow to the infected area is diminished
b. tissue damage precedes bacterial entrance
c. vascular permeability increases
d. increased numbers of leukocytes cause chemotaxis
Ans : vascular permeability increases
73. A precursor to the alternative pathway of the complement system begins with:
a. traumatic tissue destruction.
b. introduction of antigen/antibody complex.
c. stabilization of activated C3 by properdin.
d. activation of the C9 factor
Ans :  stabilization of activated C3 by properdin.
 
74. During healing with inflammation, the substances, including white blood cells and plasma, that move out of capillaries and into the tissues to attack unwanted substances are:
a. chemotaxes.
b. exudates.
c. bradykinins.
d. mediators.
Ans : exudates.
 
75. The disappearance of blood vessels during the healing of a soft tissue injury is most characteristic to what phase of the resolution and repair process?
a. initial response
b. maturation
c. epithelialization
d. granulation
Ans : maturation
76. Contractures and adhesions are types of:
a. wound closure materials.
b. dysfunctional wound healing.
c. maturation stages during the reconstructive phase of wound healing.
d. none of the above.
Ans : dysfunctional wound healing.
77. Which of the following occurs during the wound reconstruction step called granulation?
a. capillary differentiation into venules and arterioles
b. fibrin clot dissolution by enzymes and clearance by macrophages
c. scab coverage by epithelial cells
d. hyperplasic development of injured tissue
Ans : capillary differentiation into venules and arterioles
78. Which of the following is true regarding the self-defense mechanisms of the aged and very young?
a. By age 5-6 months, infants have obtained full maturation of immunity.
b. In the elderly, normal aging produces impaired immunologic responses.
c. B cell levels remain constant throughout a person’s lifetime.
d. Newborns are at risk of infections due to impaired chemotaxis.
Ans : Newborns are at risk of infections due to impaired chemotaxis.
79. Which of the following groups is/are are most likely to experience difficulties with both the immune response and the inflammatory response?
a. pediatrics
b. diabetics
c. cardiovascular disease patients
d. all of the above
Ans : all of the above
80. Allergy, autoimmunity, and isoimmunity are types of:
a. hypersensitivity.
b. hyposensitivity.
c. isosensitivity.
d. hemisensitivity.
Ans : hypersensitivity.
 
81. An exaggerated immune response to one of the antigens specific to certain tissue types of the body is known as a:
a. Type I reaction.
b. Type II reaction.
c. Type III reaction.
d. Type IV reaction.
Ans : Type II reaction.
 
82. You are presented with a patient displaying urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This patient is most likely suffering from what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
Ans : Type I
 
83. Patients who suffer graft rejections and contact allergic reactions are experiencing what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
Ans : Type IV
 
PGI Chandigarh previous year Paper of Staff Nurse 
 
84. Hypersensitivity caused by exposure to certain environmental sources is known as:
a. autoimmunity.
b. isoimmunity.
c. immune deficiency.
d. allergy.
Ans : allergy.
85. Lupus and rheumatoid arthritis are example of diseases with a(n):
a. autoimmune basis.
b. isoimmune basis.
c. immune deficiency basis.
d. hyposensitivity basis.
Ans : autoimmune basis.
 
86. Scurvy, associated with a low ascorbic acid level, would be an example of a(n):
a. iatrogenic deficiency.
b. nutritional deficiency.
c. acquired immune deficiency.
d. trauma-induced deficiency.
Ans : nutritional deficiency.
 
87. A treatment for a patient suffering B cell deficiencies that cause antibody deficiencies is:
a. gene therapy.
b. gamma globulin therapy.
c. transplantation and transfusion.
d. none of the above.
Ans :  gamma globulin therapy.
 
88. A 29-year-old male is complaining of gastrointestinal distress following a meal high in wheat flour. He has no other GI history. You may suspect:
a. E. coli infection.
b. an arthrus reaction.
c. Renaud’s phenomenon.
d. choleocystitis.
Ans : an arthrus reaction.
 
89. The body compensates for low blood pressure by increasing heart rate and vasotension. Compensation for excess fluid may come in the form of increased diuresis. These compensation mechanisms are examples of:
a. autoimmunoregulation.
b. homeostasis.
c. the immune response.
d. vasovagal tone.
Ans :  homeostasis.
90. The activities of the body that allows the maintenance of near normal physiologic stability can be characterized as:
a. general adaptation syndrome.
b. “fight-or-flight” response.
c. psychoneuroimmunological regulation.
d. homeostasis.
Ans : homeostasis.
 
91. Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue:
a. nucleoid.
b. connective.
c. nerve.
d. epithelial.
Ans : nucleoid.
92. The most abundant type of tissue in the human body is:
a. nucleoid.
b. connective.
c. nerve.
d. epithelial.
Ans : connective.
 
93. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the reconstruction phase of wound healing?
a. epithelialization
b. contraction
c. maturation
d. granulation
Ans : maturation
 
94. Which of the following is NOT a catecholamine released in response to sympathetic stimulation?
a. adrenalin
b. norepinephrine
c. cortisol
d. noradrenalin
Ans : cortisol
95. One of the primary functions of cortisol as it is released during the stress response is to:
a. promote glycolysis.
b. depress lypolysis.
c. stimulate gluconeogenesis.
d. promote beta-endorphins.
Ans : stimulate gluconeogenesis.
 
96. Which of the following is NOT a result of increased systemic cortisol?
a. immunosuppression
b. increased protein synthesis
c. increased cellular uptake of glucose
d. increased gastric secretions
Ans : increased cellular uptake of glucose
97. Which of the following is NOT a response of the nervous system to a stressful event:
a. increase in systemic catecholamines
b. increased glycogen stores
c. increased heart rate
d. increased peripheral vascular resistance
Ans : increased glycogen stores
 
98. Generally speaking, the less a person is able to cope effectively with his or her surrounding situations, the incidence of disease for that person is likely to:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. not be significantly affected.
d. alter as the person ages.
Ans : increase.
 
99. An otherwise healthy person who faces a stressful illness with an effective coping strategy is most likely to:
a. suffer a new onset of some sickness or disorder.
b. suffer an exacerbation of his current illness.
c. essentially return to normal.
d. experience depression.
Ans : essentially return to normal.
 
100. All of the following are considered physiological stresses EXCEPT:
a. marriage.
b. critical burns to the hands and feet.
c. fatigue.
d. a sprained ankle.
Ans : marriage.

 

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