GMCH Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper- Jan 2019

Hello future Nursing Officers, We are Provided GMCH government medical colleges in india Chandigarh Staff Nurse Previous Papers 2019. Candidates who are searching for Gmch staff nurse vacancy www.gmch.gov.in Staff Nurse exam solved paper & Sample Papers can get them for free on this page.

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1. A client has just returned to a nursing unit after a cardiac catheterization performed using the femoral artery. The nurse places the client in which position?

a. Bed rest with head elevation at 30°

b. Bed rest with head elevation at 45°

c. Bed rest with head elevation at 60°

d. Bed rest with head elevation at 90°

ANS A. Bed rest with head elevation at 30°

2. A nurse auscultates the heart of Anu, a 21-year-old female. Anne seeks consultation for dizziness and easy fatigability. During an assessment, the nurse identifies a mid-to-late systolic click followed with a mid-to-late systolic murmur at the cardiac apex. The murmur gets louder when Anne stands up. Based on these findings, Anu is most likely considered for which of the following cardiac problems?

a. Aortic stenosis

b. Mitral valve prolapsed

c. Pulmonic stenosis

d. Mitral regurgitation

ANS B. Mitral valve prolapsed

3. While doing the tracheal suctioning of a patient, the suction should be applied….

a. Only when withdrawing the suction catheter

b. Only when inserting the suction catheter

c. Either during insertion or withdrawal, depending on when the patient coughs

d. Only if the patient coughs

ANS A. Only when withdrawing the suction catheter

4. A nurse gives a double dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a client who only requires single dose. What, if anything, must the nurse do?

a. Ask a colleague to help assess the client

b. Withhold the client’s next dose of Tylenol

c. Report the error as soon as possible

d. Nothing, because this is an over-the-counter medication

ANS C. Report the error as soon as possible

5. Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients with a Foley Catheter in place?

a. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patient’s bladder

b. Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin solution three times a daily

c. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the bladder’s elasticity

d. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level

ANS D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level

6. After assessing the client, the nurse formulates the following diagnoses Place them in order of priority, with the most important (classified as high) listed first. 1. Constipation 2. Anticipated grieving 3. Ineffective airway clearance 4. Ineffective tissue perfusion

a. 3, 4, 2, 1

b. 4, 3, 2, 1

c. 1, 3, 2, 4

d. 3, 4, 1, 2

ANS D.3, 4, 1, 2

7. You come upon an unconscious victim with a palpable pulse. He does not appear to be breathing. You are unable to deliver the first breath. What is the next step?

a. Begin CPR

b. Repeat the head tilt/chin maneuver and attempt the breath again

c. Abdominal thrusts

d. Helminch maneuveur

ANS B. As there is respiratory arrest
Repeat the head tilt/chin maneuveur and attempt the breath again

8. A nurse is caring for a client who expresses active suicidal ideations. Which of the tollowing should be the nurses action?

a. Engage patient actively in ward activities so that patient does not talk more about suicide

b. Administer the anti depressant drugs to reduce suicidal thoughts.

c. Teach JPMR. exercises to patient to reduce suicidal thoughts via relaxation.

d. Indulge patient in interaction on suicide related thoughts and actions

ANS A. Engage patient actively in ward activities so that patient does not talk more about suicide

9. Where should you place the AED pads on an adult victim?

a. One under the left armpit and one high on the right side of the chest

b. One under the right arm and one high on the left side of the chest

c. One under each arm pit

d. One in the centre of the back and one over the centre of the chest

ANS A.One under the left arm pit and one high on the right side of the chest

10. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for the presence of ballotment. To make this determination, the nurse does which of the following?

a. Ascultates for fetal heart sounds

b. Assesses the cervix for compressibility

c. Palpates the abdomen for fetal movement

d. Initiates a gentle upward tap on the cervix

ANS C. Palpates the abdomen for fetal movement

11. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is

a. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour

b. No complaints of thirst

c. Increased hematocrit

d. Good skin turgor around burn

ANS A- normal -0.5ml/kg/hr
Urinary output of 30 ml per hour

12. Which of the following are correct techniques while checking the blood pressure of a patent:

  • I. Before the measurement patient must remain in a sitting position for about 5 minutes.
  • II. The cuff must be at the level of the heart.
  • III. The arm must be freely hanging without any firm support
  • IV. The stethoscope must be placed a little above than the cuff

a. I, II, IV

b. I, III, IV

c. I & II

d. II & IV

ANS -C
I. Before the measurement patient must remain in a sitting position for about 5 minutes.
II. The cuff must be at the level of the heart.

13. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?

a. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift

b. Face the client, bend knees and place hands on client’s forearm and lift

c. Spread his or her feet apart

d. Stand at the back of patient and lift him/ her

ANS B. Ergonomics Principal
Face the client, bend knees and place hands on client’s forearm and lift

14. During an arteriogram (angiogram), the patient suddenly says, “I m feeling really hot.” Which is the best response?

a. “You are having an allergic reaction to the dye. I will get an order for Benadry!”

b. “The heat indicates that the clots in the coronary vessels are dissolving”

c. “Let me check the room temperature”

d. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected. It will last up to 20 seconds.”

ANS –D. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected. It will last up to 20 seconds.”

15. A nurse receives report on four clients admitted to the emergency room. Who should she assess first?

a. Client with cherry red skin who has been waiting 15 minutes

b. Client with a blood pressure of 180/76 on 2L of oxygen via NC

c. Client vomiting from a heroine overdose

d. Client with asthma receiving treatment from respiratory therapy

ANS C. Client vomiting from a heroine overdose

16. The healthcare provide is caring for a patient on a ventilator with an endotracheal tube in place. What assessment data indicate the tube has migrated too far down the trachea?

a. Decreased breath sounds on the left side of the chest

b. A high pressure alarm sounds

c. Increased crackles auscultation bilaterally

d. Low pressure alarm sounds

ANS A. Decreased breath sounds on the left side of the chest. IF ET is migrated it always goes to right bronchus as it is little straight compare to left.

17. The doctor orders Zofran (ondesteron HCI) 8 mg PO t.i.d. The pharmacy sends a 100 ml bottle, labelled 4 mg/teaspoon. How many ml should be given for each dose?

a. 2 ml

b. 8 ml

c. 5 ml

d. 10 ml

ANS-D as 1 teaspoon containing 5 ml =4mg,we need 8mg -5×2 10ml

18. A patient who has experienced a stroke is being monitored during the acute management phase. The clinician notes that the patient’s intracranial pressure (ICP) is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following interventions should be taken first?

a. Give Trendelenburg position to the patient

b. Obtain vital signs and measure urine output

c. Assess level of consciousness

d. Raise the head of the bed to 30⁰

ANS D. Raise the head of the bed to 30⁰

19. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is scheduled for a left hip hemiarthroplasty at 09:00 AM. The health professional is administering 08:00 AM medications. Which of these medication orders should the nurse be concerned about?

a. Opioid analgesic intravenously

b. Low molecular weight heparin anticoagulant subcutaneously

c. Beta blocker orally

d. Cephalosporin antibiotic intravenously

ANS B. lmwh should be withheld 24hrs before

20. The nurse is assisting a doctor with the removal of a central venous catheter. To prevent complications, the patient should be instructed to

a. Perform the Adsons maneuver while removing catheter.

b. Perform the Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is pulled.

c. Turn his head to the right while grasping the siderails.

d. Turn his head to the left side and hyperextend the neck while looking up.

ANS B. Perform the Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is pulled. Adsons maneuver comes in thoracic outlet syndrome.

21. During an assessment of a patient’s abdomen, a pulsating abdominal mass is noted by the nurse. Which of the following should be the nurse’s next action?

a. Ask the patient to perform a Valsalva maneuver

b. Obtain an order for a bladder scan

c. Assess femoral pulses

d. Measure the abdominal circumference

ANS C. Assess femoral pulses, As it causes abdominal aorta aneurysm

22. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should assess:

a. Any quardent first

b. The symptomatic quardrant first

c. The symptomatic quadrant last

d. The symptomatic quardrant either second or third

ANS C. The symptomatic quadrant last

23. The nurse is caring for a patient with cervical cancer. The nurse notes that the cervical implant has become dislodged. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a. Stay with the patient and contact radiology

b. Wrap the implant in a blanket and place it behind the lead shield

c. Obtain a dosimeter reading on the patient and report it to the physician

d. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container

ANS D. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container

a. To a private room so she will not infect other patients and health care workers

24. A 68 year old women diagnosed with thrombocytopenia due to acute lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should assign the patient to:

b. To private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers

c. To a semiprivate room so she will have stimulation during her hospitalization

d. To a semiprivate room so she will have the opportunity to express her feelings about her illness

ANS B. (reverse isolation) To private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers

25. Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?

a. Elevating the head of the bed

b. Positioning the patient on left side

c. Warming the formula before administering it

d. Hanging the formula for 8 hrs in the beginning of morning shift

ANS A. Elevating the head of the bed

26. Which one of the following is the correct formula for calculating a person’s body mass index (BMI)?

a. Weight in Kg x height in metres

b. Weight in Kg divided by height in metres squared

c. Weight in Kg divided by height in metres

d. None of the above

ANS B. Weight in Kg divided by height in metres squared

27. Which action by the nurse in charge is essential when cleaning the area around a Jackson-Pratt wound drain?

a. Cleaning from the center outward in a circular motion.

b. Cleaning from periphery towards centre in circular motion.

c. Cleaning briskly around the site from left to right

d. Cleaning briskly around the site from right to left

ANS A. Cleaning from the center outward in a circular motion.

28. A patient is to receive 3,000 ml of 0.9% NaCl IV in 24 hours. The intravenous set delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the flow rate so that the patien receives how many drops of fluid per minute?

a. 21

b. 28

c. 31

d. 42

ANS C. 31 – 3000×15/24×60=31

29. Nurse can minimize agitation in a disturbed client by:

a. Increasing stimulation

b. Limiting unnecessary interaction

c. Increasing appropriate sensory perception

d. Ensuring constant client and staff contact

ANS B. Limiting unnecessary interaction

30. Physical assessment is being performed by a nurse. During the abdominal examination, nurse should perform the four physical examination techniques in which sequence:

a. Auscultation immediately after inspection and then percussion and palpation

b. Percussion, followed by inspection, auscultation, and palpation

c. Palpation of tender areas first and then inspection, percussion, and auscultation

d. Inspection and then palpation, percussion and auscultation

ANS A. Auscultation immediately after inspection and then percussion and palpation

31. When teaching the care givers of a patient who has dementia of the Alzheimer type, a nurse should stress the importance of

a. Increased stimuli

b. Predictable environment

c. Restricted activities

d. Independent decision making

ANS B. Predicable safe environment, should be given patient has cognitive impairment become agitated,anxious quickly ,unable to do their own activity

32. Which of the following describes the cognitive triad of depression?

a. Helplessness, sleeplessness, worthlessness

b. Thoughtlessness, worthlessness, sleeplessness

c. Hopelessness, worthlessness, thoughtlessness

d. Hopelessness, worthlessness, helplessness

ANS D. Hopelessness, worthlessness, helplessness

33. A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). It would be most important for a nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory values in this patient?

a. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

b. Blood Urea Nitrogen and creatinine

c. Platelet count and clotting time

d. Sodium and potassium

ANS B. Blood Urea Nitrogen and creatinine. (gentamycin causes renal toxicity and decrease creatine clearance)

34. A man is admitted to the Telemetry Unit for evaluation of complaints of chest pain. Eight hours after admission, the patient goes into ventricular fibrillation. The physici defibrillates the patient. The nurse understands that the purpose of defibrillation is to.

a. Increase cardiac contractility and cardiac output

b. Cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can recapture

c. Reduce cardiac ischemia and acidosis

d. Provide energy for depleted myocardial cells

ANS B. Cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can recapture. (VF can go to asystole if not defibrillation, further it purposes to activate SA NODE pacemaker to beat at a normal rhythm, option a- to decrease contractility, option c,d -provide oxygen not realted to defibrillation.)

35. A perception that occurs when a sensory stimulus is present but is incorrectly percei and misinterpreted is known as:

a. Hallucination

b. Delusion

c. Illusion

d. Neologism

ANS-Cimaginary perception with stimulus

36. What is the age limit approved in COTPA bill for the sale of tobacco products and cigarettes in approved packaging?

a. 16 years

b. 18 years

c. 21 years

d. 25 years

ANS C- 21 years

37. A nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving lithium citrate. The nurse tells the client to do which of the following to prevent lithium toxicity:

a. Avoid becoming dehydrated during exercise

b. Instruct the client to change positions slowly

c. Restrict salt intake in the diet

d. Limit fluid intake

ANS A. HYPONATREMIA precipitates lithium toxicity, as exercise causes salt loses

38. DOTS stands for

a. Direct Observation Treatment Short course

b. Differential Observation Treatment Short course

c. Direct Observation Treatment Scheme

d. Direct Observation Treatment Survey

ANS A. Direct Observation Treatment Short course

39. Which of the following is responsible for the spread of dengue?

a. Anopheles mosquito

b. Culex mosquito

c. Aedes mosquito

d. Housefly

ANS C. Aedes mosquito

40. Which of the following is true about the aim of sustainable development goals : goal 1:

a. Cut poverty by half in 2030

b. Reduce poverty by 75% by 2030

c. End poverty in all its forms everywhere

d. Help each nation make progress on reducing poverty

ANS C. End poverty in all its forms everywhere

41. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?

a. Eupnea

b. Apnea

c. Bradypnea

d. Tachpnea

ANS A. Eupnea

42. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are concepts related to

a. Health belief model

b. Trans theoretical model

c. Health promotion model

d. General adaptation syndrome

ANS D. General adaptation syndrome

43. A client is in the late active phase of labour. Suddenly she tells the nurse she feels weak and dizzy. The nurse notes the drop in maternal B.P. and late decelerations of fetal heart rate. The initial action the nurse should be to:

a. Increase the I.V. drip rate and notify the provider

b. Turn the client on side and administer oxygen

c. Assess for cord prolapse or vaginal bleeding

d. Prepare for immediate delivery

ANS C. Assess for cord prolapse or vaginal bleeding, Late deceleration cause cord compression.

44. During which war did the United States ask for Florence Nightingale’s assistance in setting up military hospitals?

a. Crimean war

b. World war I

c. World war II

d. Civil war

ANS A. Crimean war

45. Birth rate is:

a. Live birth/1000 mid-year population

b. Birth/1000 mid-year population

c. Live birth/10000mid-year population

d. Live birth/1000 population of reproductive age Group (15-45 year)

ANS A. Live birth/1000 mid-year population

46. As per latest census sex ratio (the number of females per 1000 of males) of Chandigarh is reported to be…..

a. 718

b. 818

c. 918

d. 1000

ANS B. 818

47. This step of the nursing process includes the systematiabc collection of all subjective and objective data about the client in which the nurse focuses holistically on the client physical, psychological, emotional, sociocultural, and spiritual aspect.

a. Assessment

b. Planning

c. Implementation

d. Diagnosis

ANS A. Assessment

48. There are a number of risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor?

a. Obesity

b. Heredity

c. Gender

d. Age

ANS A. Obesity

49. When administering single rescuer adult CPR, what is breaths-to-compressions ratio?

a. 2 breaths every 30 compressions

b. 1 breath every 30 compressions

c. 1 breath every 15 compressions

d. 2 breaths every 5 compressions

ANS A. 2 breaths every 30 compressions

50. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a new initiative aiming at early identification and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4 ‘D’s viz

a. Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.

b. Drug Abuse, Deficiencies, Development delays including disability and Defects at birth

c. Deformities, Development delays including disability, deficiencies and drug abuse

d. Diseases, Development delays including disability, defects at birth and diarrhoeal disease

ANS A. Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.

51. Given below are the three types psychological investigations: (1) Field experiments, (2) Laboratory experiments, and (3) Ex post facto field studies. If the above investigations are arranged in descending order in terms of researcher’s ability to control secondary variance, the typical order would be:

a. 2, 1, 3

b. 3, 1, 2

c. 2, 3, 1

d. 3, 2, 1

ANS A. 2, 1, 3

52. World Health Day is observed on

a. 7th April

b. 8th May

c. 9th June

d. 10th July

ANS A. 7th April

53. A patient presents to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg headache, and confusion. Which additional finding is consistent with a diagnosis of hypertensive emergency?

a. Retinopathy

b. Bradycardia

c. Jaundice

d. Urinary retention

ANS A. Retinopathy HYPERTENSIVE EMERGENCY CAUSES TARGET ORGAN DAMAGE (TOD)

54. Which of these assessment findings should the nurse expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Dementia

b. Muscle atrophy

c. Visionloss

d. Clonus

ANS C. Vision loss, diplopia earliest sign of multiple sclerosis

55. A patient who has a history of chronic bronchitis is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse notes the red blood cell count is elevated. Which of these is likely contributing factor to this lab result in this patient?

a. Chronic hypoxia

b. Hypercapnia

c. Decreased fluid intake

d. Insensible water loss

ANS A.CHRONIC hypoxia will stimulate erythropoietin to produce more red blood cells in bone marrow

56. A patient has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. Which of the following symptoms would a nurse expect to see given this diagnosis?

a. Bruising, fatigue, and bone pain

b. Bradycardia, hypotension, and palpitations

c. Paresthesia, facial rash, and abdominal pain

d. Dyspnea, malaise, and hypotension

ANS A. Bruising, fatigue, and bone pain Most common symptoms of leukemia

57. A pediatric patient has been diagnosed with right lower lobe pneumonia. Upon auscultation of this lung field, the nurse would expect to hear which breath sound?

a. Rhonchi

b. Stridor

c. Crackles

d. Wheezes

ANS A. RHONCHI or RALES most commonly seen in pneumonia on auscultation, stridor-laryngeal spasm, crackles-pulmonary oedema, wheezes asthma

58. The nurse anticipates the following laboratory study to assess the therapeutic effect in the client taking heparin intravenously:

a. Prothrombin time

b. Activated partial thromooplastin time

c. Hematocrit

d. Hemoglobin

ANS B. Activated partial thromooplastin time (normal should be <90s if it >90s initiate bleeding precaution, PT- warfarin therapy)

59. A nurse performs pre operative teaching for a client who is to have a cataract surgery. Which is most important instruction for the client she should render?

a. Remain flat for 3 hours

b. Eat a soft diet for 2 days

c. Breathe and cough deeply

d. Avoid bending form the waist

ANS D. avoid pain related activitis which causes iris prolapse after cataract surgery

60. Which of the following is not a potential source of acquired immunity?

a. Antibodies received in response to disease

b. Antibodies received from the mother

c. Prescribed multivitamins

d. Animal serum

ANS C. Prescribed multivitamins

61An emergency room nurse is assessing a 22 year old male who has been using opioids. What symptoms indicate that the client has overdosed?

a. Constricted pupils and hypotension

b. Vomiting and tachypnoea

c. Pupillary dilatation and hypertensive crisis

d. Tremors and ataxia

ANS A. Pinpoint pupil (constricted pupil), hypotension, bradycardia most commonly seen in opioids overdose

62. Which of the following pairs is not the negative symptom of Schizophrenia?

a. Emotional flattening and Asociality

b. Anhedonia and amotivation

c. Poverty of speech and apathy

d. Hallucinations and Bizarre behaviour

ANS D. Hallucinations and Bizarre behaviour (Option a, b, c comes in negative symptoms)

63. The nurse is providing a teaching session to a client who has ulcerative colitis. The nurse will instruct the client for which diet?

a. Carbohydrate-consistent diet

b. High-calorie, high-protein diet*

c. High-calcium and high potassium diet

d. Low-residue, low-fiber diet

ANS D. Patients has ulcerative colitis which indicates bloody diarrhoea ,low , residue, lowfibre should be prescribed

64. Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

a. Intimacy vs. Isolation

b. Generativity vs. Stagnation

c. Integrity vs. Despair

d. Longevity vs. Guilt

ANS C. Integrity vs. Despair (OPTION (A)-21-39YRS,(B)-45-66YRS,(D)-3-5YRS)

65. Furosemide acts on which part of the nephron?

a. Proximal tubule

b. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

c. Ascending limp

d. Distal tubule

ANS C. Ascending limp as it inhibits reabsorbtion of Na,cl so that it will excreated in urine

66. A person with schizophrenia was found to repeat whatever words the psychiatric nurse was speaking. This behaviour can be labelled as:

a. Echopraxia

b. Neologism

c. Word Salad

d. Echolalia

ANS D. imitation of language is echolalia

67. After falling from a 10 feet ladder, a patient is brought to the emergency department. The patient is alert, reports back pain, and difficulty moving the lower extremities. Which additional observation is an indication the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock?

a. Cool and pale skin

b. Bradycardia

c. Poor skin turgor

d. Increased systolic blood pressure

ANS-B-warm dry, flushed skin, bradycardia one of the important sign in neurogenic shock

68. The nurse should instruct a patient who is to receive digoxin (Lanoxin) to report development of which of the following side effects?

a. Ringing in the ears

b. Alopecia

c. Signs of bruising

d. Sensitivity to sunlight

ANS-D-Sensitivity of light most common as it causes flashe, yellow hallo vision

69. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of the codes given below:

List – I List – II
p) A number of new cases that occur over
a given period of time.
1. Epidemiology
q) Study of the distribution of diseases or
health related behaviours in a given population
2. Syndrome
r) Number of cases in a P population in a
given period of time
3. Incidence
s) A group or cluster of symptoms that occur together

4. Prevelance  
PQRS
A 2 1 3 4
B 4 2 1 3
C 3 1 4 2
D 1 4 3 2

ANS C. 3, 1, 4, 2

70. Which of the following does not describe an obsession?

  1. Continually reliving a traumatic event.
  2. An unwanted thought that a person finds intrusive and distressing.
  3. A behavior that a person feels compelled to perform.
  4. Something a person enjoys doing and talking about constantly

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 2 and 4

C) 2, 3 and 4

D) 1, 3 and 4

ANS D. 1, 3, 4

71. Arrange the following five events in correct order of occurrence:

I. Stimulation of anterior pituitary

II. Stimulation of ovaries

III. Stimulation of neurosecretory cells

IV. Release of Gonadotropic hormone

V. Release of Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Codes

A) III, V, I, IV, II

B) II, IV, I, V, III

C) I, V, III, II, IV

D) IV, V, III, II, I

ANS A. III, V, I, IV, II

72. Arrange the following events in the order of their occurrence in Panic circle

  • I. Apprehension or worry
  • II. Body sensations
  • III. Perceived threat
  • IV. Interpretation of sensations as catastrophic
  • V. Trigger stimulus

Codes

A) I, III, II, V, IV

B) II, IV, I, V, III

C) I, V, III, II, IV

D) III, V, I, II, IV

ANS C. I, V, III, II, IV

73. While receiving blood transfusion the patient develops chills and headache. What should be the nurses initial action?

a. Notify the physician STAT

b. Stop the transfusion immediately

c. Cover the patient with a blanket and administer ordered acetaminophen.

d. Slow the blood flow to keep vein open

ANS B. Stop the transfusion immediately

74. Choose the most therapeutic response to Mr. Shyam’s question: “Am I going to die?”

a. “We all are going to die one day.”

b. “What has your doctor told you?”

c. “You really don’t want to talk about death, do you?”

d. “Would you like to talk about your condition and prognosis?”

ANS D. “Would you like to talk about your condition and prognosis?” Therapeutic response is to provide comfort to patient specific suggestions.

75. Which of the following would be a common indication of infiltration of a peripheral intravenous infusion?

a. Redness and swelling around the insertion site

b. Blood return in the cannula

c. Difficulty regulating the flow with gravity

d. Cool skin distal to the insertion site

ANS D. Cool Oedema Swelling is important sign of infiltration

76. Ms. Babita is in the emergency room after being involved in a traffic accident. What would be an early sign of hemorrhagic shock?

a. Increased blood pressure.

b. Pallor

c. Increased pulse

d. Deep breathing

ANS C. Increased pulse (Always early sign of shock is rapid heart rate)

77. Ms. Anita asks the nurse when she can start eating after surgery. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

a. “You’ll have to ask the doctor.”

b. “Tell me about your appetite.”

c. “You’ll likely start on clear fluids once bowel sounds can be heard.”.

d. “I’ll have the dietitician consult with you about the most nutritious post surgery menus.”

ANS C. most important priority bowel sounds after surgery to start oral

78. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function?

a. Carotid

b. Brachial

c. Pedal

d. Radial

ANS B.  Brachial

79. The evidence to assert, whether or not, experimental treatment/condition has made the difference refers to:

a. External validity

b. Internal Validity

c. Criterion validity

d. Construct validity

ANS B.  Internal Validity

80. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self care?

a. Dorothea Orem

b. Madeleine Leninger

c. Martha Rogers

d. Sister Callista Roy

ANS A. Dorothea Orem –self care deficit theory, LENINGER –Caring nursing knowledge and practice, ROY-Balance between biologically, ROGERS –client centred therapy –person to grow in genuine environment

81. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a:

a. Possible sign of pregnancy

b. Presumptive sign of pregnancy

c. Probable sign of pregnancy

d. Positive sign of pregnancy

ANS C. over the counter pregnancy test is urine for HCG is positive probable sign of pregnancy

82. You are working in a paediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age?

a. To cough, deep breathe and improve respiratory status.

b. To establish industry and self confidence

c. To develop autonomy and sell control

d. To develop initiative and a sense of purpose

ANS B. At 6 year age the boy has industry versus inferiority (self confidence)

83. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood?

a. 3rd week

b. 4th week

c. 5th week

d. 6th week

ANS A. Baby heart starts beating about 22days (3weeks)after women conceived, but earliest to be seen by 5weeks by vaginal ultrasound

84. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Breast cancer

c. Pancreatic cancer

d. Gastric cancer

ANS C. As PANCREATIC cancer diagnosed at late stage usually not show any symptoms in early stage and survival rate is only 8%

85. The stages of infection in correct sequential order are:

a. The prodromal, incubation, illness and convalescence stages

b. The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages

c. The prodromal, primary infection , secondary infection and tertiary infection

d. The inflammation, infection and disease

ANS B. The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages

86. The functions of nasal cavity in relation of ventilation are following except:

(A) Warming up inspired air to body temperature.

(B) Humidify the air up to 100% saturation.

(C) Removal of particulate matter from air.

(D) Disinfect the air entering in to lungs.

ANS D. Disinfect the air entering in to lungs.

87. Which of the following is the best method to relieve constipation during pregnancy?

a. Lying flat on the bank while sleeping

b. Increasing the intake of vegetables and fruits

c. Reduction of iron intake by half

d. Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative

ANS B. Increasing the intake of vegetables and fruits

88. Of the following, which disease causes most death worldwide?

a. Cardiovascular disease

b. HIV/AIDS

c. Malaria

d. Tuberculosis

ANS A. Cardiovascular disease

89. Which of the following is a vector of infection?

a. An infectious fly

b. A contaminated thermometer

c. A contaminated ball

d. An infected person

ANS A. An infectious fly

90. An infant born with non-communicating hydrocephalus has just had a ventro peritoneal shunt inserted. In addition to neuromuscular assessments what measures should the nurse use in child’s care plan?

a. Reinforce wet dressings every 2 hourly

b. Position the infant on operative side

c. Place infant in semi fowler position

d. Measure head and abdominal circumference

ANS D. Measure head and abdominal circumference (since there is chance of shunt malfunction watch for early sign of ICP and abdominal distension )

91. Select the anatomic malformations associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot.

a. Ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis.

b. Atrial septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis.

c. Ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow.

d. Atrial septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow

ANS A. Ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonay stenosis.

92. Which of the following conditions is related to the development of renal calculi?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Fractured femur

c. Gout

d. Disc disease

ANS C. GOUT increased uric acid

93. Select the cranial nerve paired with its name correctly.

a. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve

b. The fifth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

c. The second cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve

d. The tenth cranial nerve: The trigeminal nerve

ANS A. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve

94. What could be the expected delivery date for the woman who got her last menstrual cycle on 20th April, 2018?

a. January 27th 2019

b. February 20th 2019

c. January 31st 2019

d. February 27th 2019

ANS A. January 27th 2019

95. A 4-year-old female child suffered severe bums in a house fire. How will you examine the extent of her bums?

a. By using the Parkland Formula

b. By using the Lund and Browder chart

c. By using the Hartman’s formula

d. By using the Rule of Ten

ANS B. By using the Lund and Browder chart

96. A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, “How could I have got this disease?” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food”

b. “You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs”

c. “You must have received an infected blood transfusion”

d. “You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex”

ANS A. “You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food

97. Select the criterion that is coupled with its indication of gestational age or birth weight.

a. Small for gestational age: The neonate’s weight is less than 20th percentile

b. Large for gestational age: The infant’s weight is above 99lh percentile

c. Low birth weight: The infant’s weight is less than 1,500g at the time of delivery

d. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate’s weight lies in the range of 10th to 90th percentile

ANS D. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate’s weight lies in the range of 10th to 90th percentile

98. Which of the following is paired correctly with its description about skeletal fracture?

a. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that extracts a part of bone from the ligament or tendon

b. A greenstick fracture: This bends the bone but does not lead to a fracture

c. A complete fracture: The fractured bone pierces to the skin surface through the skin

d. A pathological fracture: A fracture that occurs due to some physical trauma

ANS A. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that extracts a part of bone from the ligament or tendon

99. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicates salicylate toxicity?

a. Chest pain

b. Pink coloured urine

c. Slow pulse rate

d. Ringing in ears

ANS –D- tinnitus –ringing in ear

100. Urinary bladders is lined with ___________?

a. Simple epithelium

b. Stratified epithelium

c. Transitional epithelium

d. Pseudostratified epithelium

ANS C. Transitional epithelium pseudostratified columnar epithelium –lungs, stratified –salivary glands, sweat glands