BHU Nursing Exam Paper 2018 with Answer 100 Questions List

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BHU Nursing Exam Paper 2018 with Answer 100 Questions List

1 Nasal Cannula is used for :


(1). Oxygen administration
(2). Clearance of secretions
(3). Feeding milk
(4). Both (1) & (2)

2. Which drug is given through nebulization as well as intravenous route?

(1) Salbutamal (2) Budesonide
(3) 3%NaCl (4) Hydrocartisone

3. Phototherapy is used for the treatment of:


(1) Cyanosis (2) Jaundice
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Eczema

4. Exclusive breastfeeding is given up to :


(1) 4 months (2) 6 months
(3) 9 months (4) 12 months

5. A loose cuff of BP Instrument gives :


(1) Accurate reading (2) Falsely higher reading
(3) Falsely lower reading BP (4) No effect on reading

6.Diuretics are given at what time ?
(1) Morning (2) Noon
(3) Evening (4) Night

7.Mattress used for Patient care should be :
(1) Thick and Hard (2) Thin and Soft.
(3) Thick and Firm (4) Thin and Elastic

8. Body part to be pressed after intramuscular injection with which substance ?
(1) Dry Cotton Swab (2) Wet Cotton Swab
(3) Spirit Cotton Swab (4) Providone Iodine Cotton Swab

9. Subcutaneous injection is given at which angle ?
(1) i5° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 90°

10. Which is incorrectly matched in relation to temperature of solution ?
(1) Cleaning purpose – 104°F
(2) Thermal effect – 110-115°F
(3) Reducing temperature – 80-90°F
(4) Gastric lavage – 70-80°F

11. Pre-operative preparation of skin is done by application of which substan ?
(1) Hydrogen peroxide (2) Mupirocin
(3) 2% Gluteraldehyde (4) 70% Alcohol

12. Temperature of water for ‘Sitz Bath’ is :
(1) 30-34°C (2) 37-39°C (3) 43-46°C (4) 48

13. ICD-X classification’ is used in :
(1) Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)
(2) Operation Theatre
(3) Medical Record Department
(4) Blood Bank

14. Which substance is used in Fumigation ? *
(1) Potassium Permanganate (2) Hydrogen Peroxide
(3) Bleaching Powder (4) Providone Idoine

15. Human anatornical organs are kept in which coloured container in Biomedical Waste Disposal ?
(!) Red (2) Yellow (3) White (4) Blue

16. Sodium flupride vial is used for measurement of which substance in blood ?
(1) Glucose (2) urea (3) Hb1 Ac (4) Hematocrit

17. Enema is given in which position of patient ?
(1) Supine (2) Prone
(3) Right lateral (4) Left lateral

18. Normally Intercostal drainage tube is kept for how many days ?
(1) 1-2 (2) 3-5 (3) 5-10 (4) 10-15

19. Which fluid is given in ’hypovolemic shock’ ?
(1) 5% Dextrose (2)0.9% NaCl
(3) 5% Dextrose NaCl (4) 10% Dextrose

20.Choose the correct matching :
(1) T-Piece – Airway adjunct
(2) Mackintosh – CO2 detector
(3) Kidney tray – Blood storage
(4) Pulse Oximeter – Recording of Pulse rate uM cpt :

21. Which gauge diameter of needle is used for ’intradermal injection’ ?
(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 24 (4) 26

22.Vitamin K injection in newborn is given at which site ?
(1)Right Deltoid (2) Left Deltoid
(3)Mid Thigh (4) Buttock

23. ‘Pneumatic Bed’ is used for prevention of :
(1) Tongue injury (2) Bed Sore
(3) Muscular contracture (4) Foot abscess

24. The difference between rectal and oral temperature is by :
(1) 1 F (2) 2°F (3) 0.5°F (4) 1°C

25. The landmark for measuring the length of nasogastric tube is :
(1) Nose-Epigastrium (2) Tragus-Epigastrium
(3)Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium (4) Mammary line-Epigastrium

27. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by :

(1) A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm
(2) Positioning the cuff approximately 4″ above the antecubital space
(3) Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-third of the client’s arm
(4) Identify the ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.


28. A client develops a temperature of 102 degree Fahrenheit (38.8 degree Celsius), following an open heart surgery. The nurse notifies the physician because elevated temperature indicates:(1) An increase in the cardiac output
(2) Cerebral edema
(3) A forerunner of haemorrhage
(4) Possible diaphoresis and chilling

29. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is :
(1) Physical trauma (2) Unresolved stress
(3) Congenital defects (4) Germ plasm defects

30. When a nurse sees a baby in respiratory distress from apparent mucus, the first nursing action is to :

(1) Carefully slap the infant’s back
(2) Thump the chest and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(3) Pick the baby up by the feet
(4) Call the core team

31. When performing a colostomy irrigation the nurse inserts the catheter into the ‘ stoma upto :
(1) 5 cm (2 inches) (2) 10 cm (4 inches)
(3) 15 cm (6 inches) (4) 20 cm (8 inches)

32. While administering an enema the maximum safe height at which the container of fluid can be held is :

(1) 30 cm (12 inch)
(2) 32.5 cm
(3) 45 cm
(4) 66 cm

33. Infection from retention catheters can best be prevented by :

(1) Cleansing the perineum
(2) Encouraging adequate fluid
(3) Irrigating the catheter once daily
(4) Cleansing around the meatus periodically

34. Radiation therapy for cancer of the prostate may cause bladder irritability, a . |ign of this complication would probably be :

(1) Dysuria (2) Polyuria
(3) Dribbling (4) Hematuria

35. Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head injuries, the temperature rises to 102.2 degree Fahrenheit (39 degree Celsius). The suggests injury to the :

(1) Pallidum (2) Thalamus
(3) Temporal lobe (4) Hypothalamus

36. Diabetes insipidus’ is a deficiency of which hormone ?

(1) Atrial natriuretic peptide (2) Vasopressin
(3) Aldosterone (4)insulin

37.Agency which has been supporting the national tuberculosis control program – of India is :

(1) IRCS (2) SIDA
(3)DANIDA (4) UNICEF

38.Which of the following is not a primary prevention ?

(1) Pulse polio immunization
(2) Vitamin A supplementation
(3) Breast self-examination for tumour
(4) Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breast-fed bycputum positive Tubercular mother

39.The ’coronary care unit’ nurse draws an arterial blood sample to assess a client for acidosis. A normal pH of arterial blood is :

(1) 7.0 (2) 7.42 (3) 7.30 (4) 7.50

40. Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most appropriate amount would be:

(1) 500-700 mL/day , (2) 1000-1500 mL/day
(3) 2000-3000 mL/day (4) 3000-3500 mL/day

42. Doses of Vitamin-A solution :

(1) 2,00,000 IU
(2) 2,30,000 IU
(3) 5,00,000 IU
(4) 1,50,000 IU

43. “Avulsed teeth” should be placed in

(1) Normal saline .
(2) Cold water
(3) Milk
(4) Warm water

44. How many bones makes up a newborn skull ?

(I) 8 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5

45. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is :
(l) 8 to 12 months of age (2) 20 to 24 months of age
(3) 16 to 20 months of age (4) 12 to 16 months of age

46. Indian Nursing Council was established in the year :

(1) 1848 (2) 1950 (3) 1923 (4) 1947

47. A clinical situation in which the increased release of erythropoietin would be, expected is :

(1) Hypoxemia (2) Hypotension
(3) Hyperkalemia (4) Fluid over load

48. A priority nursing intervention for the care of a terminally ill patient diagnosed with metastatic cancer is :

(1) Maintaining bowel function
(2) Alleviating and relieving pain
(3) Preventing respiratory arrest
(4) Managing chemotherapy

49. A client with COPD has ‘secondary polycythemia’ the nursing diagnoses that would be included in the care plan is :

(1) Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss
(2) Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
(3) Activity intolerance related to dyspnea
(4) Risk for infection related to suppressed immune response

50. A blood transfusion should be started at how many macro-drops per minute and for how long time ?

(1) 25-50 drops for 15 mins. (2) 20 drops 10 mins.
(3) 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
(4) 120 drops for 15 mins.

51. Which of the following IUDs belongs to GPU IUDs ?

(1) Cu-T-200
(2) Lippes Loop
(3) Cu-T-380 A
(4) ML-250

52. Janani Suraksha Yojna has been started as under :

(1) CSSM
(2) NRHM
(3) MCH
(4) ICDS .

53. When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse should use which site ?

(1) Delloid
(2) Dorsoglutea!
(3) Ventrogluteal
(4) Vastus lateralis

54 Side effect of Haemophilus influenzae is :

(1) Generalized rash
(2) Urticaria
(3) Lethargy
(4) Low grade fever

55. A client with a ventroperitoneal VP shunt present with sign and symptoms of — restlessness, headache, blurred vision, bodyache and wide pulse , pressure, the nurse should suspect the child has :

(1) Brain tumour
(2) Increase intracranial pressure
(3) Loss of consciousness
(4) Sleep pattern disturbance

56 Reduce speech production is termed as :

(1) Poverty of speech
(2) Mutism
(3) Poverty of ideation
(4) Echolalia

57. One of the complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is :

(1) Increased vomiting
(2) Dehydration
(3) Korsakoffs psychosis
(4) Low blood pressure

58. A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy induced hypertension, the nurse expects the client blood pressure to be :

(1) 150/100 mmHg while standing and sitting
(2) Elevated and accompanied by a headache
(3) Above the baseline and fluctuating at each reading
(4) 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours apart

59. Which immunity is affected by HIV infection ?

(1) Natural immunity
(2)Active immunity
(3)Cellular immunity ‘
(4)Humoral immunity

60. Multi Drug Resistant (MDR) tuberculosis treatment involve all drugs except:

(1) Kanamycin
(2) Pyrazinamide
(3) Rifampicin
(4) Ethambutol

61. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in the community is :

(1) Sputum examination
(2) Mass miniature radiography
(3) Tuberculin Test
(4) Clinical Examination

62. Mini-mental status examination does not include :

(1) Cognition
(2) Perception
(3) Insight
(4) History of psychiatric disorder

63- Prophylactic dose of Folic Acid in pregnancy is .

(1)500 microgram
(2) 1 mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) 4 mg

65. Weight of placenta is :

(1) 50 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 450 gm
(4) 500 gm

66. Which of the following drugs is used to treat postoperative shivering ?
(1) Ondansetron
(2) Diclofenac Sodium
(3) Pethidine
(4) Paracetamol

68. ’APGAR Score’ is a measure of all except:

(1) Respiratory status
(2) Neurological status
(3) Nephrological status
(4) Circulatory status

69. Which is the most frequently used gas for laparoscopy ?

(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Helium
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen

70. What is to be addressed first in a case of polytrauma ?

(1) Circulation
(2) Blood pressur,
(3) Airway
(4) Neurology

71. For MTP, consent is taken from :

(1)Wife only
(2)Husband only
(3) Both
(4)None

72. What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day ?

(1) 25-30 g
(2) 25-30 g
(3) 50 – 60 g
(4) 100-150 g

73. Breast milk is rich in all except:

(1) Lactose
(2) PUFA
(3) Sodium
(4) Lactalbumin

74. All of the following are part of treatment of Scabies, except:

(1) Topical Permathrin
(2) Oral Ivermectin
(3) Oral antihistaminics
(4) Long term oral steroids

75. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of Oxygen ?

(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 21
(4) 100

76. Heat Stroke is :

(1) Heat cramps
(2) Heat collapse
(3) Heat exhaustion
(4) Heat hyperthermia

77. True about ‘dying declaration’ is :

(1) More important than dying deposition
(2) Can be taken in presence of Magistrate only
(3) Taken in presence of two witnesses
(4) Has to be taken under oath

78. Most common nosocomial infection is :

(1) S. aureus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Listeria
(4) S. pyogenes

79. Which is the complication of blood transfusion ?

(1) Hyponatremia
(2)Hyperkalemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Increased Serum Albumin

80. Pre-anesthetic medication is given to : ‘

(1) Reduce anxiety and fear
(2) Reduction of secretion of saliva
(3) Prevent undesirable reflexes
(4) All of the above

81. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should be started within :


(1) 1-2 hours .
(2) 14 hours
(3) 18 hours
(4) 72 hours

82. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line anti tubercular drugs ?

(1) Niacin
(2) Pyridoxine
(3) Ascorbate
(4) Thiamine

83. Snellen’s Chart is read from a distance of:

(l) 6 feet
(2) 14 feet
(3)20 feet
(4) 24 feet

84.Significant weight loss is :

(1) 5% over 6 to 12 months
(2) 10% over 6 to 12 months
(3) 5% over 6 weeks
(4) 10% over 6 weeks

86. Most common site for ’atopic dermatitis’ is :

(1) Scalp
(2) Trunk
(3) Popliteal fossa
(4) Knees

87. Which is a topical way of drug administration ?
(1) Inhaled steroid
(2) Transdermal patch
(3) Sublingual NTG
(4) Rectal Diazepam

88. Correct order in labor is :
(i) Flexion
(ii) Crowing
(iii) External rotation
(iv) Restitution

(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)

89. Treatment of severe dehydration is :

(1) Start colloids immediately
(2) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(3) Combination of 5% Dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate
(4) Start DNS immediately

90. Route of DPT vaccine is :

(1) Oral
(2) Subcutaneous
(3) Intramuscular
(4) Intravenous

91. Kangaroo Mother Care – which of the following is ti lie ?

(1) Can be done by father also
(2) Indicated for LBW babies
(3) Effective thermal control All of the above
(4) All of the above

92. Propulsive stage in labor in multipara is :

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 40 min
(4) 1 hour

93. Drug not given in pregnancy is :

(1) Inhibitors
(2) Penicillin
(3) Methyldopa (4)Labetalol

94. Most common cause of ‘acute otitis media’ is:

(1) H. influenzae
(2) S. pneumoniae
(3) S. aureus
(4) Pseudomonas

95. Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except:

(1) Poor vision
(2) Diarrhoea
(3) Dermatitis
(4) Hypogonadism

96. Which of the following types of shock will usually have warm peripheral extremities ?

(1) Hypovolemic
(2)Neurogenic
(3) Cardiogenic
(4) Anaphylactic

97. Potassium content of Ringer’s Lactate (m mol /L) is :

(1) 130
(2) 109
(3) 4
(5) 50

98.Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given :

(1) 1 day before surgery
(2) 2 hours before surgery
(3)Before time of incision
(4) Only postoperatively

99. Anti tubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest is :

(1) INH
(2) Rifampicin
(3) Ethambutol
(4) Pyrazinamide

100. Vertical transmission is seen with which type of Hepatitis ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) E
(4) C

Answer List for BHU Nursing Exam 2018

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Answer Key BHU Nursing exam 2018
Answer Key BHU Nursing exam 2018