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BHU Nursing Exam Paper 2018 with Answer 100 Questions List
1 Nasal Cannula is used for :
(1). Oxygen administration
(2). Clearance of secretions
(3). Feeding milk
(4). Both (1) & (2)
2. Which drug is given through nebulization as well as the
(1) Salbutamal (2) Budesonide
(3) 3%NaCl (4) Hydrocartisone
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3. Phototherapy is used for the treatment of:
(1) Cyanosis (2) Jaundice
(3)
4. Exclusive breastfeeding is given up to :
(1) 4 months (2) 6 months
(3) 9 months (4) 12 months
5. A loose cuff of BP Instrument gives :
(1) Accurate reading (2) Falsely higher reading
(3) Falsely lower reading BP (4) No effect on reading
6.Diuretics are given at what
(1) Morning (2) Noon
(3) Evening (4) Night
7.Mattress used for Patient care should be :
(1) Thick and Hard (2) Thin and Soft.
(3) Thick and Firm (4) Thin and Elastic
8. The body part to be pressed after intramuscular injection with which substance?
(1) Dry Cotton Swab (2) Wet Cotton Swab
(3) Spirit Cotton Swab (4) Povidone-Iodine Cotton Swab
9. Subcutaneous injection is given at which
(1) i5° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 90°
10. Which is incorrectly matched in relation to temperature of solution?
(1) Cleaning purpose – 104°F
(2) Thermal effect – 110-115°F
(3) Reducing temperature – 80-90°F
(4) Gastric lavage – 70-80°F
11. Pre-operative preparation of skin is done by application of which substan ?
(1) Hydrogen peroxide (2) Mupirocin
(3) 2% Gluteraldehyde (4) 70% Alcohol
12. Temperature of water for ‘Sitz Bath’ is :
(1) 30-34°C (2) 37-39°C (3) 43-46°C (4) 48
13. ICD-X classification’ is used in :
(1) Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)
(2) Operation Theatre
(3) Medical Record Department
(4) Blood Bank
14. Which substance is used in
(1) Potassium Permanganate (2) Hydrogen Peroxide
(3) Bleaching Powder (4) Povidone Idoine
15. Human anatornical organs are kept in which coloured container in Biomedical Waste Disposal ?
(1) Red (2) Yellow (3) White (4) Blue
16. Sodium
(1) Glucose (2) urea (3) Hb1 Ac (4) Hematocrit
17. Enema is given in which position of patient?
(1) Supine (2) Prone
(3) Right lateral (4) Left lateral
18. Normally Intercostal drainage tube is kept for how many
(1) 1-2 (2) 3-5 (3) 5-10 (4) 10-15
19. Which fluid is given in ’hypovolemic shock’ ?
(1) 5% Dextrose
(2) 0.9% NaCl
(3) 5% Dextrose NaCl
(4) 10% Dextrose
20
(1) T-Piece – Airway adjunct
(2) Mackintosh – CO2 detector
(3) Kidney tray – Blood storage
(4) Pulse Oximeter – Recording of Pulse rate
21. Which gauge diameter of
(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 24 (4) 26
22
(1)Right Deltoid (2) Left Deltoid
(3)Mid Thigh (4) Buttock
23. ‘Pneumatic Bed’ is used for prevention of :
(1) Tongue injury (2) Bed Sore
(3) Muscular contracture (4) Foot abscess
24. The difference between rectal and oral temperature is by :
(1) 1 F (2) 2°F (3) 0.5°F (4) 1°C
25. The landmark for measuring the length of
(1) Nose-Epigastrium
(2) Tragus-Epigastrium
(3) Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium
(4) Mammary line-Epigastrium
26. One of the primary nursing objectives in a client with a CVA is the maintenance of the airway. to achieve this objective the nurse should initially place the client in the:
(1) Prone position
(2) Lareral position
(3) Supine position
(4) Trendelenburg position
27. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by :
(1) A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm
(2) Positioning the cuff approximately 4″ above the antecubital space
(3) Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s arm
(4) Identify the ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take a
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28. A client develops a temperature of 102
(1) An increase in the cardiac output
(2) Cerebral edema
(3) A forerunner of hemorrhage
(4) Possible diaphoresis and chilling
29. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is :
(1) Physical trauma (2) Unresolved stress
(3) Congenital defects (4) Germplasm defects
30. When a nurse sees a baby in respiratory distress from apparent mucus, the first nursing action is to :
(1) Carefully slap the infant’s back
(2) Thump the chest and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(3) Pick the baby up by the feet
(4) Call the core team
31. When performing
(1) 5 cm (2 inches) (2) 10 cm (4 inches)
(3) 15 cm (6 inches) (4) 20 cm (8 inches)
32. While administering an enema the maximum safe height at which the container of fluid can be held is :
(1) 30 cm (12 inch)
(2) 32.5 cm
(3) 45 cm
(4) 66 cm BHU Nursing Exam Paper
33. Infection from retention catheters can best be prevented by :
(1) Cleansing the perineum
(2) Encouraging adequate fluid
(3) Irrigating the catheter once daily
(4) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
34. Radiation therapy for cancer of the prostate may cause bladder irritability, a sign of this complication would probably be :
(1) Dysuria (2) Polyuria
(3) Dribbling (4) Hematuria
35. Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head injuries, the temperature rises to 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit (39 degrees Celsius). The suggests injury to the :
(1) Pallidum (2) Thalamus
(3) Temporal lobe (4) Hypothalamus
36. Diabetes insipidus’ is a deficiency of which hormone ?
(1) Atrial natriuretic peptide (2) Vasopressin
(3) Aldosterone (4)insulin
37. The agency which has been supporting the national tuberculosis control program – of India is :
(1) IRCS (2) SIDA
(3) DANIDA (4) UNICEF
38.Which of the following is not a primary prevention ?
(1) Pulse polio immunization
(2) Vitamin A supplementation
(3) Breast self-examination for tumor
(4) Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed
39. The ’coronary care unit’ nurse draws an arterial blood sample to assess a client for acidosis. A normal pH of arterial blood is :
(1) 7.0 (2) 7.42 (3) 7.30 (4) 7.50
40. Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most appropriate amount would be:
(1) 500-700 mL/day (2) 1000-1500 mL/day
(3) 2000-3000 mL/day (4) 3000-3500 mL/day
42. Doses of Vitamin-A solution :
(1) 2,00,000 IU
(2) 2,30,000 IU
(3) 5,00,000 IU BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(4) 1,50,000 IU
43. “Avulsed teeth” should be placed in
(1) Normal
(2) Coldwater
(3) Milk
(4) Warm water
44. How many bones
(I) 8 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5
45. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is :
(l) 8 to 12 months of age (2) 20 to 24 months of age
(3) 16 to 20 months of age (4) 12 to 16 months of age
46. Indian Nursing Council was established in the year :
(1) 1848 (2) 1950 (3) 1923 (4) 1947
47. A clinical situation in which the increased release of erythropoietin would be, expected is :
(1) Hypoxemia (2) Hypotension
(3) Hyperkalemia (4) Fluid overload
48. A priority nursing intervention for the care of a terminally ill patient diagnosed with metastatic cancer is :
(1) Maintaining bowel function
(2) Alleviating and relieving pain
(3) Preventing respiratory arrest
(4) Managing chemotherapy
49. A client with COPD has ‘secondary polycythemia’ the nursing diagnoses that would be included in the care plan is :
(1) Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss
(2) Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
(3) Activity intolerance related to dyspnea
(4) The risk for infection related to suppressed immune
50. A blood transfusion should be started at how many macro-drops per minute and for how long
(1) 25-50 drops for 15 mins.
(2) 20 drops 10 mins.
(3) 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
(4) 120 drops for 15 mins.
51. Which of the following IUDs belongs to GPU IUDs ?
(1)
(2) Lippes Loop
(3)
(4) ML-250
52. Janani Suraksha Yojna has been started as under :
(1) CSSM
(2) NRHM
(3) MCH
(4)
53. When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse should use which site?
(1) Deltoid
(2) Dorsoglutea!
(3) Ventrogluteal
(4) Vastus lateralis
54 Side effect of Haemophilus influenzae is :
(1) Generalized
(2) Urticaria
(3) Lethargy
(4) Low-grade
55. A client with a
(1)
(2) Increase intracranial pressure
(3) Loss of consciousness
(4) Sleep pattern disturbance
56 Reduce speech production is termed as :
(1) Poverty of speech
(2) Mutism
(3) Poverty of ideation
(4) Echolalia
57. One of the complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is :
(1) Increased vomiting
(2) Dehydration
(3) Korsakoffs psychosis
(4) Low blood pressure
58. A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy induced hypertension, the nurse expects the client blood pressure to be :
(1) 150/100 mmHg while standing and sitting
(2) Elevated and accompanied by a headache
(3) Above the baseline and fluctuating at each reading
(4) 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six hours
(1) Natural immunity
(2) Active immunity
(3) Cellular immunity ‘
(4) Humoral immunity
60. Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) tuberculosis treatment
(1) Kanamycin
(2) Pyrazinamide
(3) Rifampicin
(4) Ethambutol
61. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in the community is :
(1) Sputum examination
(2) Mass miniature radiography
(3) Tuberculin Test
(4) Clinical Examination
62. Mini-mental status examination does not include :
(1) Cognition
(2) Perception
(3) Insight
(4) History of psychiatric disorder
63- Prophylactic dose of Folic Acid in pregnancy is .
(1) 500 microgram
(2) 1 mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) 4 mg
65. Weight of placenta is :
(1) 50 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 450 gm
(4) 500 gm
66. Which of the following drugs is used to treat postoperative
(1) Ondansetron
(2) Diclofenac Sodium
(3) Pethidine
(4) Paracetamol
68. ’APGAR Score’ is a measure of all except:
(1) Respiratory status
(2) Neurological status
(3) Nephrological status
(4) Circulatory
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Helium
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
70. What is to be addressed first in a case of polytrauma ?
(1) Circulation
(2) Blood
(3) Airway
(4) Neurology
71. For MTP, consent is taken from :
(1) Wife only
(2) Husband only
(3) Both
(4) None
72. What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day ?
(1) 25-30 gm
(2) 25-30 gm
(3) 50 – 60 gm
(4) 100-150 gm
73. Breast milk is rich in all except:
(1) Lactose
(2) PUFA
(3) Sodium
(4) Lactalbumin
74. All of the following are part of treatment of Scabies, except:
(1) Topical
(2) Oral Ivermectin
(3) Oral antihistaminics
(4) Long term oral steroids
75. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of Oxygen ?
(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 21
(4) 100 BHU Nursing Exam Paper
76. Heat Stroke is :
(1) Heat cramps
(2) Heat collapse
(3) Heat exhaustion
(4) Heat hyperthermia
77. True about ‘dying declaration’ is :
(1) More important than dying deposition
(2) Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only
(3) Taken in presence of two witnesses
(4) Has to be taken under oath
78. Most common nosocomial infection is :
(1) S. aureus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Listeria
(4) S. pyogenes
79. Which is the complication of blood transfusion ?
(1) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Increased Serum
(1) Reduce anxiety and fear
(2) Reduction of secretion of saliva
(3) Prevent undesirable reflexes
(4) All of the above
81. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should be started within :
(1) 1-2 hours
(2) 14 hours
(3) 18 hours
(4) 72 hours
82. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line anti tubercular drugs ?
(1) Niacin
(2) Pyridoxine
(3) Ascorbate
(4) Thiamine
83. Snellen’s Chart is read from a distance of:
(l) 6 feet
(2) 14 feet
(3) 20 feet
(4) 24 feet
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84.Significant weight loss is :
(1) 5% over 6 to 12 months
(2) 10% over 6 to 12 months
(3) 5% over 6 weeks
(4) 10% over 6 weeks
85. Most common ‘shock’ in children is:
(1) Hypovolemic
(2) Cardiogenic
(3) Septic
(4) Neurogenic
86. Most common site for ’atopic dermatitis’ is :
(1) Scalp
(2) Trunk
(3) Popliteal fossa
(4) Knees
87. Which is a topical way of drug administration ?
(1) Inhaled steroid
(2) Transdermal patch
(3) Sublingual NTG
(4) Rectal Diazepam
88. Correct order in labor is :
(i) Flexion
(ii) Crowing
(iii) External rotation
(iv) Restitution
(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
(4) (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii)
89. Treatment of severe dehydration is :
(1) Start colloids immediately
(2) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(3) Combination of 5% Dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate
(4) Start DNS immediately
90. Route of DPT vaccine is :
(1) Oral
(2) Subcutaneous
(3) Intramuscular
(4) Intravenous
91. Kangaroo Mother Care – which of the following is ti lie ?
(1) Can be done by father also
(2) Indicated for LBW babies
(3) Effective thermal control All of the above
(4) All of the above
92. Propulsive stage in labor in multipara is :
(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 40 min BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(4) 1
(1) Inhibitors
(2) Penicillin
(3) Methyldopa
(4) Labetalol
94. Most common cause of ‘acute otitis media’ is:
(1) H.
(2) S.
(3) S. aureus
(4) Pseudomonas
95. Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except:
(1) Poor vision
(2) Diarrhoea
(3) Dermatitis
(4) Hypogonadism
96. Which of the following types of shock will usually have warm peripheral extremities?
(1) Hypovolemic
(2) Neurogenic
(3) Cardiogenic
(4) Anaphylactic
97. Potassium content of Ringer’s Lactate (m mol /L) is :
(1) 130
(2) 109
(3) 4
(5) 50
98.Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given :
(1) 1 day before surgery
(2) 2 hours before surgery
(3) Before the
(4) Only postoperatively
99. Anti tubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest is :
(1) INH
(2) Rifampicin
(3) Ethambutol
(4) Pyrazinamide
100. Vertical transmission is seen with which type of
(1) A
(2) B
(3) E
(4) C
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