Here we provide SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE solved exam paper held on 27-12-2018. To help for future competitive nursing exam paper to take nursing jobs in Daman & Diu. also, provide mock test or model papers, an online nursing exam for registered nurse jobs, government nursing jobs like Aiims, ESIC, SSB, Railway paramedical
SSB Daman & Diu nursing exam paper.
Q. 1. The purpose of anti-embolism stockings is to:
- Decrease the arterial circulation to the legs
- Reduce/Prevent edema of legs
- Promote warmt in
- Decrease the venous circulation from leas
Reduce/Prevent edema of legs
Q. 2 The first line of intervention for prevention of infection is:
- Washing hands
- Administering antibiotics
- Assigning private room for patients
Q. 3. Which of the following is the reason for intradermal injection to be used for testing allergic reactions?
- It is less painful
- It diffuses slowly
- Diffuses rapidly
- It is easy to administer
Q. 4. Which of these parameters indicates infection in a postoperative patient?
- Presence of an indwelling urinaiy catheter
warmand tender incision site
- Rectal temperature of 37.8 °C
Whiteblood count of 6.000 cells/cu.mm
Red, warm and tender incision site
Q. 5. A postoperative patient receives a stat dose of injection Pethidine intramuscularly. After one hour, the nurse checks on pain relief. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse using here?
Q. 6. A patient with heart failure is on diuretics. Which is the accurate indicator of such patient’s health status?
- Fluid intake and output
- Vital signs
- Urine-specific gravity
Q. 7. Which route of drug administration provides a rapid response in a patient?
Q. 8. Which type of data does auscultation provide?
- Secondary source
Q. 9 The purpose of deep palpation is to assess:
- Skin turgor
Q. 10. In which type of sleep do most vivid dreams occur?
- Non-rapid eye movement sleep
- Non-hibernation sleep
- Hibernation sleep
- Rapid eye movement sleep
Rapid eye movement sleep
Q. 11. Colour blindness is due to the problem with:
- Aqueous humour
Q. 12. The type of seizures that involves both sides of brain is called:
- Paitial seizures
- Secondary seizures
- Primary seizures
Q. 13. A score of 3 in a Glasgow coma scale indicates:
- Deep coma
- Fully responsive person
Q.14. Which of these postoperative assessments of a patient subjected to kidney transplant has to be reported immediately to the physician?
- Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
- Urine output less than 20 ml/hour
- Temperature of 99 °F
- Serum sodium level of 137 mEq/L
Urine output less than 20 ml/hour
Q. 15. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk of
Q. 16. Surgical repair of hernia is:
Q.17. A nurse caring for a patient subjected to total laryngectomy should plan for:
- Alternative communication method
- Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated
- Oral feeds at intervals
- Supine position for patient
Alternative communication method
Q. 18. Barrel chest is seen in:
Q. 19. An elderly female with osteoporosis is at the risk of which of these complications?
- Bone fracture
- Loss of estrogen
- Dowager’s hump
- Negative calcium balance
Q. 20. Vertigo is due to problem in:
- External ear
- Middle ear
- Tympanic membrane
- inner ear
Q. 21. How should a nurse position a patient for colonoscopy test?
- To lay the patient prone with buttocks elevated
- Lay the patient in
- Lay the patient on his/her right side of the body with legs straight
- To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
Q. 22. Which of the following listed drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
Q. 23. The most common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is:
- Nausea and vomiting
- Painful mouth sores
- Frequent diarrhea
Nausea and vomiting
Q. 24. Positive Kemig’s sign is observed in:
Q. 25. Which laboratory investigation is essential for a patient admitted in emergency with severe angina and ST elevation?
- Creatine kinase level
- Troponin level
- Liver enzymes
Q. 26. K Bind is given for patients with:
Q. 27. Which risk factor for diabetes mellitus is non-modifiable?
- Advancing age
- Physical inactivity
- Poor control of blood glucose level
Q. 28. The clinical manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome are
- Anorexia and weight loss
- Hyperkalemia and peripheral edema
- Moon facies and truncal obesity
- Hypotension and dizziness
Moon facies and truncal obesity
Q. 29. Colie’s fracture refers to the fracture of:
Q. 30. Which of the below-mentioned signs indicates obstructive jaundice?
- Elevated urobilinogen in urine
- Clay-coloured stools
- Reduced hematocrit
- Straw-coloured urine
Q. 31. The final step in the purification of water on a large scale is:
Q. 32. The goal of Mission Indradhanush launched by Government of India is to:
- Eradicate poverty and hunger
- Improve maternal health
- Vaccinate all under-fives
- Achieve universal primary education
Vaccinate all under-fives
Q. 33. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults leads to:
Q. 34. A method used for individual health education in the community is:
- Role play
- Counseling and interview
Counseling and interview
Q. 35. Averting the transition of disability into handicap relates to which level of prevention?
Q. 36. Minimum interval between the two doses of tetanus toxoid injection for a pregnant woman should be:
- Eight weeks
- Two weeks
- Three weeks
- Four weeks
Q. 37. The measurement of the probability of occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified period of time is called:
Q. 38. Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over long periods of time results in:
Q. 39. Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through:
- Infected blood
- Causal hugging and kissing
- Sexual contact
- Breast milk
Q. 40. Green-colour-coded treatment under Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) refers to:
- Urgent referral
- In patient treatment
- Outpatient treatment
- Home care
Q. 41. Inability to retract the prepuce to reveal the glans penis is called:
Q. 42. Which of these is a cyanotic heart defect?
- Patent Ductus Arteriosus
- Ventricular septal defect
- Atrial septal defect
- Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot
Q. 43. In which position should the nurse place the infant to examine the thyroid gland?
Q. 44. Bitot’s spots are found due to the deficiency of Vitamin:
Q. 45. The important aspect to be included in the discharge plan of a child with cleft lip and palate is:
- Adherence to antibiotic therapy
- Administration of vitamin supplements
- Establishment of adequate feeding pattern
- Application of sterile dressing over the lip
Establishment of adequate feeding pattern
Q. 46. Which of these signs indicates tracheoesophageal fistula immediately after birth?
- Passage of frothy meconium
- Continuous drooling
- Slow response to stimuli
- Diaphragmatic breathing
Q. 47. which of these assessments indicate dehydration in a preterm neonate?
- Urine output below 1 ml/hr
- Bulging fontanels
- Good skin turgor
- Excessive weight gain
Urine output below 1 ml/hr
Q. 48. Sway back appearance is seen in a child w ith:
Q. 49. An infant can sit steadily without support at the age of:
- 6 months
- 12 months
- 8 months
- 10 months
Q. 50. Which of these vaccines are recommended at birth according to National Immunization Schedule?
- BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV
- BCG. Hepatitis B, DPT
- BCG. DPT, OPV
- DPT. OPV, Hepatitis B
BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV
Q. 51. From which of these populations does a researcher select the actual study samples?
Q. 52. Which of these terms refers to the extent a tool measures what it is supposed to measure?
Q. 53. Which of the following is a measure of dispersion?
- Standard deviation
Q. 54. A blue print for the conduction of study is:
- Research design
- Research hypothesis
- Pilot study
- Data collection tool
Q. 55. Which of these designs is used to estimate the prevalence of osteoporosis?
- Quasi experimental
Q. 56. What phase of drinking pattern is a person experiencing if he/she uses alcohol as a stress reliever?
- Early alcoholic phase
- Pre alcoholic phase
- Crucial phase
- Chronic phase
Pre alcoholic phase
Q. 57. Which defense mechanism is used by a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder?
Q. 58. Uncontrolled eating of food, followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviours to get rid of excess calories, is called:
- Anorexia Nervosa
- Bulimia Nervosa
- Binge eating disorder
- Pervasive eating syndrome
Q. 59. Persistently repeating the same word or idea in response to different questions is termed as:
- Word salad
Q. 60. An affective alteration symptom exhibited by a patient with severe depression is:
- Social isolation
Q. 61. The goal of phototherapy in a newborn is to:
- Decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level
- Prevent hypothermia
- Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
- Promote respiratory stability
Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
Q. 62. A late complication of molar pregnancy is:
- Coagulation failure
- Uterine perforation
Q. 63. The co-ordination between fundal contraction and cervical dilatation is called as:
- Fundal dominance
Q. 64. Which of the following is exhibited by a mother with postpartum depression?
- Uncondoned crying
Q. 65. Which of these is a galactopoietic hormone?
Q. 66. After birth, the umbilical vein collapses and forms:
- Ligamentum arteriosum
- Ligamentum venosum
- Ligamentum teres
- Ligamentum umbilicus
Q. 67. Which of these is considered as dangerous Placenta previa?
- Type II anterior
- Type I posterior
- Type I anterior
- Type II posterior
Type II Posterior
Q. 68. A nurse should monitor intake and output during oxytocin administration, because the drug
- Increases thirst
- Causes toxicity for kidneys
- Causes water intoxication
- Induces diuretic effect
Causes water intoxication
Q. 69. An amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm indicates:
Q. 70. Which of these parameters should be assessed during the first minute of life in a newborn
- Weight length, head circumference
- Colour, respiration, heart rate
- Colour, respiration, temperature
- Gestational age, sex, muscle tone
Colour, respiration, heart rate
Q. 71. Compression effect of gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava results in:
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- HELLP syndrome
- Supine hypotension syndrome
- Supine hypertension syndrome
Supine hypotension syndrome
Q. 72. The third stage of labour ends with:
- Full dilatation of cervix
- Delivery of placenta
- Two hours after the birth of baby
- Birth of baby
Delivery of placenta
Q. 73. Which of these actions is NOT appropriate for a mother with early postpartum haemorrhage?
- Check pad count
- Apply fundal massage
- Insert indwelling urinary catheter
- Administer oxytocic
Check pad count
Q. 74. In which type of abortion is the fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period?
Q. 75. A mother with 9- month baby is planning for tubectomy. What is the ideal time for surgery following menstruation?
- Proliferative phase
- Menstrual phase
- Ovulatory phase
- Secretory phase
Q. 76. Which of these is a sign of previous child birth?
- Ovoid uterus
- Rigid abdominal wall
- Conical cervix with round external os
- Gaping introitus
Q. 77. Fetal heart sounds can be detected using a Pinard stethoscope between
- 22-24 weeks
- 10-12 weeks
- 14-16 weeks
- 16-18 weeks
Q. 78. Which of these is an alarming sign of pre-eclampsia?
- Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- Edema grade of +2
- Blood pressure of 150/90
- Proteinuria of +2
Deep tendon reflexes 4+
Q. 79. which information about uterine contractions should be documented in first stage of labour ?
- Dilatation, duration and frequency
- Duration, frequency and intensity
- Dilatation, effacement and position
- Frequency, duration and position
Duration, frequency and intensity
Q. 80. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in a labouring mother with hypertension?
- Magnesium sulphate