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Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam Paper

Kerala PSC Staff Nurse, kerala psc for nurses

Kerala PSC Previous Year (2007) Staff Nurse Exam Paper:- Hello Dear Nursing Student, Are you preparing the Kerala psc for nurses exam the examination of the nursing staff? We provide material for the nursing exam. If you visit our website on a regular basis, it will prove to be beneficial for you as we update all the information related to nursing exams to you.

You can find all the RUHS old question papers here. E.g., RPSC‘s old nursing question paper, PBSCSSB staff nurse, Bsc nurse exam syllabus and question paper, RUHS, Kerala PSC Nursing Exam Model Question Paper, Question, and Answers Quiz, AIIMS Model Question Paper, etc.

Today, we have provided the old papers of Kerala PSC 2007 for preparing for the best course of nursing students. By solving all these questions, you will get a good experience that will help you with all the upcoming government nursing exams.

kerala psc staff nurse question papers and answers previous year

Q 1. —is the inflammation of the tongue:

A. Gingivitis
B. Gastritis
C. Glossitis
D. Parotitis

C. Glossitis

Q 2. Heat regulating center is:

A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Central cortex

B. Hypothalamus

Q 3. Position used for giving enema:

A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Lithotomy

A. Left lateral

Q 4.Strength of normal saline is:

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 19%
D. 0.9%

D. 0.9%

Q 5. An agent that has the power to kill microorganisms:

A. Bacteriocide
B. Antiseptic
C. Bacteriostat
D. Disinfectant

A. Bacteriocide

Q 6. l gm of fat give calories of heat:

A. 10
B. 4
C. 2
D. 9

D. 9 Kerala PSC for nurses

Q 7. Strength of savlon for disinfecting thermometer is:

A. 1:30
B. 1:20
C. 1:40
D. 1:10

A. 1:30

Q 8. Reaction of normal urine is:

A. Acidic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Alkaline

B. Slightly acidic

Q 9. Loss of appetite is termed as:

A. Dyspepsia
B. Dysphagia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea

C. Anorexia

Q 10. Amount of solution administered for evacuant enema for adults:

A. 250-500 ml
B. 500-1000 ml
C. 1000-1500 ml
D. 1500-2000 ml

B. 500-1000 ml

Q 11. temperature of the water used for tepid sponging is;

A. 65-85°F
B. 85-100 °F
C. 100-105 °F
D. 105-110 °F

B. 85-100 °F

Q 12. One pint is equal to:

A. 250 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 1000 ml

B. 500 ml

Q 13. Size of needle for intramuscular injection:

A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-23 gauge
C. 24-25 gauge
D. 26-27 gauge

B. 21-23 gauge

Q 14. Rate of oxygen administration through nasal catheter:

A. 0.5-1 liter
B. 2-4 liter
C. 4-6 liter
D. 6-10 liter

B. 2-4 liter

Q 15. Instrument used to examine the rectum:

A. Autoscope
B. Proctoscope
C. Endoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope

B. Proctoscope

Q 16. Florence Nightingale was born on: Kerala PSC for nurses

A. January 12
B. April 12
C. May 5
D. May 12

D. May 12

Q 17. Drugs used to induce vomiting is:

A. Emetic
B. Antiemetic
C. Pyretics
D. Antipyretics

A. Emetic

Q 18. Acetic acid is used for testing urine for:

A. Sugar
B. Acetate
C. Albumin
D. Bile salts

C. Albumin

Q 19. Enema given to destry or expel the worms fron the intestine:

A. Astringent enema
B. Anthelmintic enema
C. Purgative enema
D. Carminative enema

B. Anthelmintic enema

Q 20. The important person in the hospital:

A. Doctor
B. Nurse
C. Patient
D. Technician

C. Patient

Q 21. Examination with the help of st scope is called:

A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection

C. Auscultation

Q 22. When pulse rate is less than 60 per minute it is

A. Bradycardia
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea

A. Bradycardia

Q 23. Lock jaw develops in:

A. Typhoid
B. Tetanus
C. Meningitis
D. Diphtheria

B. Tetanus

Q 24. The process of incising the ear to promote drainage is called:

A. Trephining
B. Mobilization
C. Myringotomy
D. Fenestration

C. Myringotomy

Q 25. The most common complication during the first 24 hours following an amputation: Kerala PSC staff nurse

A. Infection
B. Flexion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sloughing of the sutures

C. Hemorrhage

Q 26. The doctor ordered 1,00,000 units of penicillin. If there is a vial containing 2,00,000 units diluted in 10 ml. How many ml be given to the patient?

A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1.25 ml
D. 2.5 ml

A. 0.5 ml

Q 27. Profuse menstrual flow during lar period is called:

A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea

B. Menorrhagia

Q 28. The most serious complication fracture is:

A. Infection
B. Fat embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Air embolism

B. Fat embolism

Q 29. Buck’s extension is a method of:

A. Skin traction
B. Skin grafting
C. Skeletal traction
D. Bom grafting

A. Skin traction

Q 30. The incubation period of chickenpox is:

A. 12-21 days
B. 1-7 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 3 weeks-1 month

A. 12-21 days

Q 31. Schick test is used for the determination of a person’s susceptibility to:

A. Scarlet fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever

C. Diphtheria

Q 32. Which of those effects is expected following the administration of a mydriatic medication? Kerala PSC for Nurses

A. Dilatation of the pupils
B. Improved power of accommodation
C. Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
D. Increased drainage of the aqueous humor

A. Dilatation of the pupils

Q 33. Common type of fracture in children:

A. Simple fracture
B. Collis fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Complicated fracture

C. Greenstick fracture

Q 34. The most important point in the nursing care of the patient after tracheostomy is:

A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Maintenance of intake output
C. Oxygen administration
D. Suctioning

D. Suctioning

Q 35. Quickening takes place between:

A. 10th and 16th week
B. 16th and 20th week
C. 20th and 24th week
D. After 24th week

B. 16th and 20th week

Q 36. The diuretic phase begins in bums within:

A. 48-72 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 36-48 hours
D. 24-36 hours

A. 48-72 hours

Q 37. The main side effect of streptomycin is:

A. Hepat
B. Blood dyscrasias
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

C. Ototoxicity

Q 38. Vector of malaria is:

A. Female culex mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Male culex mosquito
D. Male anopheles mosquito

B. Female anopheles mosquito

Q 39. Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of.

A. Iron
B. Thiamine
C. Acetic acid
D. Folic acid

D. Folic acid

Q 40. The normal serum bilirubin is:

A. 0.1-1 mg/dl
B. 2-4 mg/di
C. 1.5-3.5 mg/dl
D. 10-12 mg/dl

A. 0.1-1 mg/dl

Q 41. The symptom of enlarged prostrate include.

A. Pyuria
B. Difficulty in micturition
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

B. Difficulty in micturition

Q 42. A degenerative disease of the brain associated with liver failure:

A. Uremia
B. Diabetic coma
C. Pticemia
D. Hepatic coma

D. Hepatic coma

Q 43. Severe pain occurs in the right quad-50. rant of the abdomen radiating the back right shoulder: Kerala PSC for nurses

A. Renal colic
B. Internal colic
C. Biliary colic
D. Abdominal colic

C. Biliary colic

Q 44. To lower the acidity of gastric secretion give:

A. Gelusil
B. Belladona
C. Aspirin
D. Carminative mixture

A. Gelusil

Q 45. Diabetes mellitus is usually recognized by:

A. Albuminuria
B. Lack of appetite
C. Glycosuria
D. Urea in the urine

C. Glycosuria

Q 46. Tuberculosis of the spine is also called:

A. Osteomalacia
B. Charcot’s disease
C. Erving’s disease
D. Pott’s disease

D. Pott’s disease

Q 47. Nitroglycerine is given sublingually to relieve pain by vasodilatation of: Kerala PSC for nurses

A. Pulmonary artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Aortic artery
D. Carotid artery

B. Coronary artery

Q 48. The cause of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver is:

A. General fluid imbalance
B. Portal obstruction
C. Kidney trouble
D. All the above

B. Portal obstruction

Q 49. Dr Salk discovered a vaccine for the prevention of:

A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Smallpox
D. Tetanus

B. Poliomyelitis

Q 50. Pneumothorax is the condition in which there is:

A. Water in the visceral space
B. Air in the visceral space
C. Water in the pleural space
D. Air in the pleural space

D. Air in the pleural space

Q 51. The cause of anemia in renal failure is

A. Erythropoietin deficiency
B. Repeated hemodialysis
C. Excessive use of diuretics
D. Restriction of protein in the diet

A. Erythropoietin deficiency

Q 52. Group ‘O’ patients can receive blood belonging to group:

A. O
B. B
C. A
D. AB

A. O

Q 53. Xerophthalmia is due to deficiency of

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A

D. Vitamin A

Q 54. Best therapeutic measure for empyema is:

A. Chest drainage
B. Postural drainage
C. Breathing exercise
D. Fowler’s position

B. Postural drainage

Q 55. Allergen causes:

A. Bronchitis
B. Asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pneumonia

B. Asthma

Q 56. Serum cholesterol level will be elevated in case of:

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cretinism
D. Diabetes

B. Hyperthyroidism

Q 57. Normal bleeding time is:

A. 1-3 mts
B. 6-10 mts
C. 3-6 mts
D. 10-12 mts

C. 3-6 mts

Q 58. Excessive salivation and drooling is seen in:

A. Esophageal atresia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Omphalocele
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula

A. Esophageal atresia

Q 59. Koplik’s spot is seen is:

A. Chickenpox
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Smallpox

B. Measles

Q 60. The bilirubin encephalopathy due to high concentration of indirect bilirubin on brain and basal ganglia in the neonatal period is:

A. Status epileptics
B. Kerning’s sign
C. Kernicterus
D. Jaundice

C. Kernicterus

Q 61. Diabetes insipidus is caused by:

A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin metabolism
C. Antidiuretic hormone
D. Carbohydrate metabolism

C. Antidiuretic hormone

Q 62. A congenital hemolytic disease caused by Rh incompatibility is:

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Erythroblastosis felalis
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Jaundice

B. Erythroblastosis felalis

Q 63. On average, the normal infant triples their birth weight when they reach the age of approximately?

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months

B. 12 months

Q 64. A nurse is assisting with the care of a child receiving oxygen by a cannula. In what way it may differ from the way i» is normally administering an adult:

A. The oxygen need not be humidified before administering to a child
B. The cannula for a child has only one nasal prong
C. The amount of oxygen administered to a child should be less than the amount administered to an adult
D. The technique used for this therapy is the same for an adult and child

C. The amount of oxygen administered to a child should be less than the amount administered to an adult

Q 65. The commonest type of jaundice in newborn:

A. Hemolytic
B. Physiological
C. Obstructive
D. Hepatogenic

B. Physiological

Q 66. The most common cause of heart disease in adolescence or young adult is: Kerala psc staff nurse exam paper, previous year Kerala psc for nurses

A. Rheumatic fever
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Anaemia
D. Melanization

A. Rheumatic fever

Q 67. Manifestation of anger in children:

A. Thumb sucking
B. Temper tantrum
C. Nightmare
D. Regression

B. Temper tantrum

Q 68. Kwashiorkor is developed due to lack of:

A. Protein
B. Calories
C. Fat
D. Protein and calories

A. Protein

Q 69. Accidents are the largest single cause of mortality and disability between the age of:

A. 1-4 years
B. 5-7 years
C. 9-10 years
D. 10 years onwards

A. 1-4 years

Q 70. One of the following drug is not an anticonvulsant:

A. Diazepam
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Penicillin

D. Penicillin

Q 71. The increased concentration of oxygen in capillaries causing vasoconstriction dilated vision of eyes is seen in:

A. Conjunctivitis
B. Cataract
C. Strabismus
D. Rctrolentral fibroplasia

D. Rctrolentral fibroplasia

Q 72. Liver enzymes which converts lipid soluble bilirubin:

A. Low-density lipoprotein
B. Acetyle choline
C. Glucoronyl transferase
D. High-density lipoprotein

C. Glucoronyl transferase

Q 73. The expected weight of a child at one year whose birth weight was 3.5 kg would be: Kerala PSC staff nurse exam paper

A. 7.5 kg
B. 12.5 kg
C. 11.5 kg
D. 10.5 kg

D. 10.5 kg

Q. 74. The disease transfered through contact is called:

A. Communicable disease
B. Infectious disease
C. Epidemic disease
D. Contagious disease

D. Contagious disease

Q 75. following are examples of live vaccine except:

A. Typhoid
B. Oral polio
C. BCG
D. Measles

A. Typhoid

Q 76. A substance which is suppressor neutralize bed odors is called:

A. Deodorant
B. Antiseptic
C. Disinfectant
D. Antibiotic

A. Deodorant

Q 77. Poliomyelitis is:

A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Spirochetal infection

B. Viral infection

Q 78. Rabies is a fatal viral disease of:

A. Cardiovascular system
B. Muscular system
C. Central nervous system
D. Skeletal system

C. Central nervous system

Q 79. A childhood psychiatric disorder characterized by abnormalities incommunicable and social interaction and by restricted repeated activities and interests: Kerala PSC for nurses

A. Phobia
B. Obsession
C. Autism
D. Illusion

C. Autism

Q 80. Misperception of external stimuli is called.

A. Phobia
B. Hallucination
C. Addiction
D. Illusion

D. Illusion

Q 81. A syndrome in which the central features as overactivity mood change and self importan ideas:

A. Mania
B. Schizophrenia
C. Depression
D. Hallucination

A. Mania

Q 82. Voltage of current applied for ECT is-

A. 35-75 volts
B. 75-I00 volts
C. 72-120 volts
D. 100-150 volts

C. 72-120 volts

Q 83. An artificially induced stage in which the person is relaxed and unusually unconscious:

A. Phobia
B. Play therapy
C. Epilepsy
D. Hypnosis

D. Hypnosis

Q 84. Senile dementia occurs during:

A. Childhood
B. Teenage
C. Adult
D. Old age

D. Old age

Q 85. The ability to enter into the life of another person to accurately perceive his current feeling and to communicate this feeling to the patient is: Kerala psc staff nurse

A. Sympathy
B. Empathy
C. Self disclosure
D. Roleplaying

B. Empathy

Q 86. Weight of uterus is:

A. 30 gm
B. 60 gm
C. 90 gm
D. 120 gm

B. 60 gm

Q 87. The volume of amniotic fluid at term:

A. 500 ml
B. 750 ml
C. 1000 ml
D. 1250 ml

C. 1000 ml

Q 88. Tobacco is not only is cigarettes but is chewed by many people. Which poisons alkaloid is present in tobacco?

A. Lead
B. Nicotine
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine

B. Nicotine

Q 89. After blood circulation stops, how long does the brain function?

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A. 3 minutes

Q 90. At what age does our brain stop further growth?

A. After 5 years
B. After 10 years
C. After 15 years
D. After 20 years

C. After 15 years

Q 91. How many bones are present in the entire framework of the human skeleton?

A. 106
B. 206
C. 306
D. 406

B. 206

Q 92. How many chromosomes are found in a cell of human being?

A. 23
B. 28
C. 46
D. 48

C. 46

Q 93. Which part of the heart is responsible for circulating blood through the lungs?

A. Left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Right atrium

D. Right atrium

Q 94. When the lens of the eyes become cloudy and opaque, the condition is known as:

A. Glaucoma
B. Long-sightedness
C. Cataract
D. Short-sightedness

C. Cataract

Q 95. Which refers to the treatment of mental disease with the help of electric shock? Kerala PSc for Nurses

A. Electroconvulsive therapy
B. Electroencephalography
C. Electrocardiography
D. Electric wave

A. Electroconvulsive therapy

Q 96. Which term is applied for the sensation of noise as roaring or ringing in the ears?

A. Tinnitus
B. Tetanus
C. Murmur
D. Peristalsis

A. Tinnitus

Q 97. Paralysis of the lower half of the torso and of both legs:

A. Quadriplegia
B. Hemiplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. Paralysis of lower extremity

C. Paraplegia

Q 98. Which test is used to detect typhoid?

A. Widal test
B. Millard’s test
C. Kahn test
D. Rorschach test

A. Widal test

Q 99. Obstruction of the artery or vein by a clot of blood:

A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Phlebitis

A. Thrombosis

Q 100. What should be the duration of full term pregnancy?

A. 250 days
B. 280 days
C. 300 days
D. 310 days

B. 280 days

Kerala PSC staff nurse