Here ESIC Previous Year Paper (26/2/2019) Evening Shift is provided. In this, 125 questions with answers have been given, which have appeared in the ESIC exam. There are 100 questions in the nursing subject and 25 questions in general aptitude. This will be very helpful in your exam preparation. With this, you will know what kind of questions to face in the exam, what is the pattern of them, what kind of questions are put up in General Aptitude. If you read this paper, then you will get a lot of information about ESIC exam with it. Also read the existing papers which are from ESIC 2012, 2014, 2016, etc. CGHS Pharmacist exam paper 2018.
Q. 1. When dangling the patient at the bedside, monitor for:
A. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness.
B. Malignant hypertension and dizziness.
C. Visual field disturbances and dizziness.
D. Fever from exertion.
2. Reye’s syndrome is associated with___
A. Biliary colic.
B. Hemolytic transfusion reactions.
C. Sickle cell crisis.
D. Use of aspirin with a viral illness.
3. The following are presenting symptoms of patients with catatonic schizophrenia. EXCEPT
A. Disorganized behaviour and speech.
B. Have dangerous periods of agitation and explosive behavior.
C. Sudden onset of mutism.
D. Stereotyped position with waxy flexibility.
4. In what ways could Hepatitis A virus be spread in a. if one of the kitchen employees is in the reservoir.
A. If he sustains a cut through bloodborne.
B. The oral-fecal route, through his hands.
C. While he coughs out through the airborne route.
D. While he speaks and sneezes, through the droplet route.
5. The main clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema are as follows, EXCEPT
D. Caught with expectoration.
6. Bipolar disorders are treated with the following medications, EXCEPT
D. Valporic acid.
7. The Three Features of a Community
A. Primary, secondary and tertiary
B. Physical -Mental – Social
C. Location, population, and social system.
D. Agent – Host – environment
8. The size of which part of the eye contributes to controlling the amount of light entering the eye– ESIC Previous Year Paper
B. Macula lutea.
C. Optic disc.
9. The elderly individual is at greater risk for dehydration than the middle-aged adult because_____.
A. The elderly have more muscle mass.
B. The elderly drink little fluid.
C. Compensatory mechanisms work less efficiently.
D. Their bodies are almost 80% water.
10. Accumulation of endolymph causing distention and increased pressure within the membranous labyrinth with the destruction of sensory cells in the ampulla and cochlea is
A. Otitis media.
B. Meniere’s disease.
11 Complete dilation of cervix to birth of a baby is staged as:
A. Stage 4 of labor.
B. Stage 3 of labor.
C. stage 2 of labor.
D. Stage 1 of labor.
12. Positive – definite sign of pregnancy is:
B. Uterine enlargement.
D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound.
13. The key instruction to be given to the patient and the caregiver with epilepsy is as follows. EXCEPT
A. Take medications daily.
B. Avoid alcohol, smoking, hypoglycemia.
C. Take showers in bathtubs.
D. Maintain medication and seizure chart.
14. “Para” is defined as:
A. The total number of pregnancies.
B. Any pregnancy terminates before the period of viability.
C. Box from the beginning of 38 to 42 weeks.
D. The number of past pregnancies gone beyond the period of viability.
15. The characteristics of lochia rubra is: (ESIC Previous Year Paper)
B. Foul odor.
C. Bloody with fleshy odor.
D. Pink/brown with flesh odor.
16. Which of the following would not promote trust in the nurse-patient relationship?
A. Examining a wound without providing privacy.
B. Maintaining confidentiality.
C. Fulfilling promises.
D. Returning at the stated time.
17. When a pulse rate is irregular, it is best to count the____
A. Radial pulse for 30 seconds.
B. Apical pulse for 30 seconds.
C. Apical pulse for a full minute.
D. Radial pulse for a full minute.
18. HbA1C indicates post serum glucose levels over previous
A. 2 months period.
B. 3 months period.
C. 6 months period.
D. 1-month period.
19. Approach to health is that acknowledges and respects the interaction of a person’s mind, body, and spirit within the environment is termed as:
A. Health Belief Model
B. Holistic Health Model
C. High – Level Wellness Model
D. Clinical Model
20. To properly stage a pressure ulcer.
A. The skin must be completely dry.
B. Eschar must be removed.
C. Natural light must be used.
D. The patient must be supine.
21. The classical substances that increase the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin are?
22. The reflex action of the toes are indicative of abnormalities in the motor control pathways leading from the cerebral cortex
A. Romberg test.
B. Babinski reflex.
C. Patellar- reflex.
D. Achilles reflex.
23 A significant predictor of fetal well-being is if the fetal heart rate is:
A. 120 – 160 beats/min.
B. 160 – 200 beats/min.
C. 100 – 120 beats/min.
D. 180 – 200 beats/min.
24. The major determinants of health
A. Public Education and Information
B. Screening for diseases
C. Public works, water, sanitation, and housing
D. Agriculture. Food and Nutrition
25. Progressive thinning and shortening of the cervix is defined as:
26. The most significant characteristics experienced by a patient with depression is: (ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019)
A. Aggressive, abusive, or violent behavior.
B. Depressed mood and loss of pleasure or interest
C. Lack of impulse control.
D. Hypervigilance and nightmares.
27. Which of the following is the most abundant type of blood cells?
28. Why is it important for health care providers to monitor the growth and development of the children?
A. Statistical analysis is important for research.
B. Early detection of potential problems leads to earlier care and treatment.
C. Studying groups of children help to determine normal ranges.
D. Parents need the reassurance of professionals to know their children are healthy.
29. The cleft palate usually repaired___.
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 2-3 years.
D. 12-18 months.
30. Cerclage (encircling cervix with suture) is done for patients with
A. Incompetent cervix.
B. Complete abortion.
C. Incomplete abortion.
D. Threatened abortion.
31. The patient with appendicitis usually exhibits the following clinical manifestations. ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019
A. Hematemesis or melena.
B. Pain occurs immediately after eating.
C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s Point.
D. Heartburn. regurgitation and dysphagia.
32. Eclampsia is characterized by the following. EXCEPT
A. BP is greater than 160/110 mmHg.
C. Marked proteinuria.
D. Mild facial edema.
33. Philosophy of Primary Health Care are as follows EXCEPT
A. Inter-sectoral approach
B. Equity and justice
C. Primary prevention
D. Interrelationship of health and development
34. Refrigerated breastmilk should not be used if it is beyond:
A. 1 week.
B. 48 hours.
C. 2 weeks.
D. 2 months.
35. One cardiac cycle completes in____.
A. 0.9 seconds.
B. 0.57 seconds.
C. 0.8 seconds.
D. 0.12 seconds.
36. The inflammatory / exudative phase of wound healing will last for
A. 1-4 days.
B. 5-20 days.
C. 21 days to a month.
D. 1 year.
37. The main cause of genital warts (Condylomata Acuminata) is:
A. Human papillomavirus (HPY).
B. Neisseria gonorrhea.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Herpes simplex virus.
38. Medical asepsis differs from surgical asepsis in that it is aimed at:
A. Preventing the transmission of microorganisms.
B. Killing all microorganisms.
C. Sterilizing all equipment.
D. Preventing the entry of microorganisms into the body.
39. All elderly tend to be more susceptible to infection because of:
A. Poor nutritional status.
B. Increased exposure to pathogens.
C. A decline in immune function.
D. Lack of exercise.
40. The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by___
A. Arachnoid villi.
C. Central sulcus.
D. Choroid plexuses.
41. Nurses use the nursing process as a method of:
A. Communicating with patients and families.
B. Planning, organizing, and delivering patient care.
C. Meeting the legal requirements and standards in nursing.
D. Meeting public expectations of nurses.
42. The level of care which is oriented towards the promotion and maintenance of health, the prevention of Community disease, the management of common episodic disease, and the monitoring of stable or chronic conditions.
A. Advanced care level
B. Tertiary care level
C. Primary care level
D. Secondary care level
43. The extracellular fluid includes the following EXCEPT
A. Synovial fluid, pericardial fluid, and pleural fluid.
B. Cerebrospinal fluid and fluid in the interstitial spaces.
C. The fluid within the cells.
D. Blood, plasma, and lymph.
44. In rheumatoid arthritis, during the acute phase, the values which are significant are___.
A. LFT elevation (Liver Function Test).
B. CBC elevation (Complete Blood Count).
C. ESR and C Reactive Protein (CRP) elevation.
D. RFT elevation (Renal Function Test).
45. Which of the following is not a typical difference factor between benign and malignant tumors. ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019
A. Cell differentiation.
B. Size of the tumor.
C. Growth rate.
46. The amount of air passing into and out of the lungs during each cycle of breathing is referred to as:
A. Residual volume.
B. Tidal volume.
C. Total lung capacity.
D. Vital capacity.
47. False labor manifestation are as follows. EXCEPT
A. Abdominal discomfort.
B. Contractions are irregular.
C. Cervix progressively effaced and dilated.
D. Contraction lessens with activity or rest.
48. Compression of facial nerve in the temporal bone will lead to___.
B. Guillain-Barre syndrome.
C. Multiple sclerosis.
D. Bell’s palsy.
49. Beds on the unit have rapidly filled and the patient with bacterial pneumonia is about to have a roommate. The roommate is a postsurgical patient without an infection, the nurse would
A. Not to worry because this room has its own air filtration system.
B. Simply prepare the unit for the arrival of the new patient.
C. Make certain, that the curtains around the new patient’s bed are functional and completely dosed.
D. Notify the admitting office that the new patient cannot be housed with a patient under droplet pneumonia.
50. Cardiogenic shock is precipitated by___
B. Spinal cord injury.
C. Myocardial infarction.
D. Severe allergy.
51. The main sign and symptom noticed in patients with Achalasis is:
C. Butterfly rash.
D. Joints pain.
52. Tumors within sella turcica and small adenomas of the pituitary glands can be removed through.
A. Infratentorial approach.
B. Supratentorial approach.
C. Transsphenoidal approach.
53. Considering the chain of infection, a reservoir might be
A. A tick carrying Lyme disease.
B. A contaminated water supply.
C. Staphylococcus bacteria.
D. An uninfected patient.
54. Bulging sack-like lesion filled with spinal fluid and spinal cord element is:
A. Spinal Bifida-Occulta.
55. Gestational diabetes increases risk for the following. EXCEPT
A. Small for date fetus.
C. Prematurity and stillbirth.
D. Congenital anomalies.
56. Secondary prevention is:
A. Good living and working condition
B. Early detection (diagnosis) of disease & Prompt treatment
C. Nutritional counseling
D. Safe water Supply, Vector, and animal reservin’ control
57. When assessing the physical development of the five-year-old. you would find it abnormal if he ___.
A. Could catch a large rubber ball.
B. Needed to go up a stairway one step at a time.
C. Cold jump on one foot a few times.
D. Could stack up a pile of six blocks.
58. _____के अतिरिक्त शल्य चिकित्सा और एनेस्थीसिया के संभावित प्रतिकूल प्रभाव निम्नानुसार है। The possible adverse effects of surgery and anesthesia in addition to _____ are as follows.
A. निर्जलीकरण और इलेक्ट्रोलाइट असंतुलन। Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
B. हृद्पेशीय अवसाद, मंदनाड़ी, परिसंचरण पात।
C. दुर्दम अतिताप / अल्पताप।
D. रक्त वाहिकाओं के संपीड़न या स्थिरता से घनास्त्रता।
59. The patient complains of pain and has redness with swelling at the site of IV. The nurse must
A. Stop infusion and remove IV cannula.
B. Change IV tubing and the solution.
C. Apply the warm moist pack to the reddened area.
D. Start nasal oxygen. ESIC Previous Year Paper
60. Inborn errors of metabolism are the following, EXCEPT
A. Cystic fibrosis.
B. Turner’s syndrome.
D. Tay-Sachs disease.
61. The following are the important preoperative nursing care for a patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy, EXCEPT
A. Promoting urinary drainage.
B. Assure nutrition and correct fluid and electrolyte balance.
C. Acid-ash diet to treat infection.
D. Hormonal therapy.
62. The nurse is assigned to a patient who has bacterial pneumonia and is under droplet precautions, which personal protective equipment (PPE) will s/he wear to deliver the meal tray?
A. Special filtration mask and gloves.
B. Only a mask is needed.
C. No PPE required.
D. Gown, mask, gloves, shoe covers.
63. In the liver bacteria that found their way into portal circulation are destroyed by____.
A. Hydrochloric acid.
D. Kupffer cells.
64. Vital statistics include the following. EXCEPT
A. Life expectancy.
B. Education rate.
C. Morbidity and mortality statistics.
D. Birth rate.
65. Role of community nurse in school Health program, EXCEPT
A. Assist in screening physical, mental and other special examination of children in school
B. Assist In school medical examination and follow up
C. Assist in communicable disease control
D. To provide immunization to the children
66. To encourage an infant’s cognitive and psychosocial development, parents and other caregivers should ___. ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019
A. Firmly explain the rules of acceptable behavior.
B. Allow e baby to play alone several horns each day.
C. Keep the baby with them at all times so he or she is safe.
D. Give loving, consistent care, including playing.
67. The patient who has an appointment for a Pap smear should have been instructed.
A. To bring a sanitary pad because moderate bleeding may occur.
B. That the procedure takes about 45 minutes.
C. That she will know the test results before leaving the office.
D. Not to douche or use vaginal medication before the test.
68. Health maintenance program for older people in the community are as follows EXCEPT
A. Palliative care
B. Health education
C. Dietary guidance and food sendees
D. Home health service
69. The key dietary advice given for patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease is:
A. To avoid caffeine, tobacco, beer, milk, and carbonated beverages.
B. High fiber diet with a lot of fluids.
C. To take a high carbohydrate diet.
D. To avoid protein and calcium.
70. Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by
A. Recovering from a disease.
B. Being breastfed.
C. Exposure to a disease.
D. Immunization with antibody response.
71. The drug of choice to treat Bullimia nervosa is:
A. Antidepressants (Eg. SSRI)
B. Thiamine IV.
D. IV Glucose 10%
72. The brain region which is responsible for the coordination of voluntary muscular movement, posture, and balance
A. Cerebral cortex.
C. Spinal cord.
D. Medulla Oblongata.
73. Repetitive, uncontrollable thoughts and acts (Eg. Rituals, rigidity, inflexibility) is termed as:
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
D. Ritualistic behavior.
74. When considering the principle of growth and development, remember that
A. Although development occurs in an orderly sequence, the rate may vary between individuals.
B. Most children can run before they walk.
C. All children should grow at the same rate: all four-year-olds should weigh within 4 kgs of each other.
D. Development occurs evenly, with periods of no growth occurring every third year.
75. The most common method of microorganism transfer from one person to another in the hospital setting is prevented by (ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019)
A. Disinfecting instruments in special solutions.
B. Washing hands thoroughly and frequently.
C. Changing bed linen daily.
D. Filtering air in the hospital.
76. APGAR score is considered excellent if the score is:
77. द्रव संतुलन में शामिल प्रमुख पोषक तत्व है।
A. वसा और प्रोटीन
B. क्लोराइड और कार्बोहाइड्रेट
C. पोटेशियम और सोडियम
D. विटामिन B9 और मैग्नीशियम
78. Current jelly-like stools containing blood and mucus among 3 months to 3 years old child is suspected to have.
A. Hirschsprung’s disease.
B. Meckel’s diverticulum.
C. Abdominal hernia.
79. Responses to avoid therapeutic communication are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. Advice giving.
B. Closed-ended questions.
C. Arguing and judgmental responses.
D. Reflecting and clarifying.
80. Rh. Negative mother should receive – globulin
C. RhO (D) immune.
D. 4 RhO (M) globulin.
81. The commonest drug which is administered during an anaphylactic reaction (ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019)
A. Injection Epinephrine.
82. Standard precaution requires the use of protective eye wear when
A. There is a danger of body fluids splashing.
B. Caring for a patient with a cough.
C. When a vomit is oozing blood.
D. Invasive procedures are performed.
83. Pretenn labor is when it occurs between:
A. 16-20 weeks of gestation.
B. 20-37 weeks of gestation.
C. 32-36 weeks of gestation.
D. 24-30 weeks of gestation.
84. A clinical sign that a patient is close death would be
A. Periods of apnea and irregular respirations.
B. Nausea that occurs after meals.
C. Pain is well controlled with small doses of morphine.
D. Increasing BP, pulse, respiration.
85. The person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as when eating a meal, has what kind of respiratory condition?
C. Cheyne-strokes respiration.
86. Protective devices are applied snugly, which of the following findings would you be concerned about?
A. Skin that is warm and pink.
B. Quick capillary refill of the nailbeds.
C. Ability to move fingers and toes.
D. The pallor of the nailbeds.
87. The complications for ventricular septal defect are as follows. EXCEPT
B. Pulmonary hypertension.
C. Cerebral palsy.
D. Heart failure.
88. Mantoux Test (Purified Protein Derivative) is significantly positive when the erythema measures
A. 3.5 mm – 9.9 mm
B. 15 mm or greater
C. 10 mm – 14.9 mm
D. 5 mm – 10 mm
89. In Erickson’s theory, adolescent develop a sense of ___.
D. Intellect. ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019
90. Principles of ethical practice includes the following. EXCEPT
D. Respect for autonomy.
91. The traditional source-oriented, narrative type of charting is characterized by all of the following forms, EXCEPT the
A. History and physical examination form.
B. Doctor’s progress sheet.
C. Laboratory sheet.
D. Database form.
92. The bacteria that retain the stain in Gram’s method of staining is a:
A. Gram-negative bacteria.
B. Gram-positive bacteria.
C. Broad-spectrum bacteria.
D. Spores of bacteria.
93. Example for autosomal recessive inheritance___.
B. Skeletal disorders.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Craniofacial disorders.
94. Homan’s sian is used to assess
A. Wound sepsis.
C. Deep vein thrombosis.
95. Aganalionic disease of the intestinal tract which causes inadequate motility is termed as:
A. Hirschsprung’s disease.
B. Diverticular disease.
C. Ulcerative colitis.
D. Crohn’s disease.
96. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms area as follows. EXCEPT
C. Anxiety and insomnia.
97. Behavioral clues of impending suicide are as follows, EXCEPT
A. Becomes energetic after a period of severe depression.
B. Gives away valuable possessions.
C. Withdraws from social activities and plans.
D. Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle response.
98. The normal levels of sodium in plasma is
A. 97-106 mEq/L
B. 135-143 mEq/L
C. 60-100 mg/dl
D. 90-196 mg/l00ml
99. Phototherapy is indicated for children with
B. Hemolytic disease.
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis.
100. Wearing seat belts, safety helmets and other safety equipments are example for:
A. Tertiary health promotion behavior.
B. Holistic health care model.
C. Primary health promotion behavior.
D. Secondary health promotion behavior.
1. चिल्का झील किस राज्य में स्थित है?
B. पश्चिम बंगाल
2. वाइड एंगल का लेखक कोन है।
A. शोएब अख्तर
B. राहुल द्रविड़
C. अनिल कुंबले
D. शेन वार्न
3. इरावदी नदी किस देश में बहती है।
4. Which country hosted 2018 FIFA world cup?
5. What is the capital of Sweden? ESIC Previous Year Paper evening shift 2019.
6. कुत्तों और मुर्गियों के एक समूह में, पैरों की संख्या सिरों की संख्या के दोगुने से 14 अधिक है। कुत्तों की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिये ?
7. If L stands for +, M stands for x, P stands for ÷, then what would be the result of the following expression
8. Read the statement carefully and pick the statement suitable for the situation:
Statement: You are suffering from diabetes and Obesity. At a wedding party, your colleague offered two more sweets to you. What do you do?
A. Accept the offering and throw away in a dustbin in front of him
B. As your colleague has offered, eat the sweets with an obligation
C. Scold him for offering the sweets.
D. You simply deny the offering with a pleasant smile and say “stomach is full”
9. दिए गए कथन(नों) और निष्कर्षों को ध्यान से पढ़ें और चुनें की इनमे से कौन सा निष्कर्ष, तार्किक रूप से कथन का पालन करता है।
सभी निंबू आम हैं।
सभी संतरे आम हैं।
सभी नींबू संतरे हैं।
कुछ संतरे नींबू हैं।
A. केवल निष्कर्ष 1 पालन करता है
B. न तो 1 और न ही 2 पालन करता है
C. केवल निष्कर्ष 2 पालन करता है
D. 1 और 2, दोनों पालन करते है।
10. Read the data given carefully and answer the question:
The following Venn diagram shows information about the number of persons who like a specific type of Tea flavors as produced by a company XYZXYX.
How many persons like only two types of tea powder flavors?
11. Study the following figures carefully and identify the alternative from the options in which the given figure below is embedded?
12. How would the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line?
13. Choose the one from given alternatives which hold the analogous relation as the given functions:
M⨂N = M² + N³
P ࿖ Q = [P + Q]²
A. 5 ⨂ 7 = 74
B. 4 ࿖ 6 = 52
C. 7 ⨂ 9 = 63
D. 8 ࿖ 3 = 11
14. What would be the next number in the series:
2, 6, 18. 54.?
15. Three of the alternatives follow a certain relation. Find the instrument which does not belong to the group?
16. A number consists of two digits. The digit ill ten’s place exceeds the digit in the unit’s place by 2. The sum of the digits is ¹/₆ of the number. Then the number is: ESIC Previous Year Paper 2019
17. आयतन V की पदों में, आधार त्रिज्या R वाले लंबवृत्तीय सिलेंडर की वक्रीय सतह का क्षेत्रफल होगा:
A. tan 90°
B. sin 45°
19. एक त्रिभुज की भुजाएँ 7cm, 5cm, और 3cm है। तो त्रिभुज का सबसे बड़ा कोण है:
20. The total amount invested by three persons A, B, and C is ₹1290 so that A’s share times B’s, and B’s share 7/4 times C’s. Then the share of C is:
A. “₹ 320”
B. “₹ 240”
C. “₹ 520”
D. “₹ 630”
21. The hight of a right circular cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface is 704 sq. cm. Then its volume is given by:
A. 2816 cm³
B. 9856 cm³
C. 1408 cm³
D. 5632 cm³
22. 10m लंबी एक सीढ़ी जमीन से 8m ऊपर स्थित एक खिड़की तक पहुंचती है। तो दीवार के आधार से सीढ़ी के पाद (आधार) की दुरी है:
23. बराबर ऊंचाई के दो खंभे एक 40m चौड़ी सड़क के किनारे एक दूसरे के सामने खड़े है। सड़क पर उन दोनों के बिच स्थित एक बिंदु से, खंभों के शीर्ष के उन्नयन कोण क्रमशः 60° और 30° है तो खम्भे की ऊंचाई है।
A. 10√(3 )m
B. 15 m
C. 10/√(3 )m
D. 20√(3 )m
24. यदि किसी वर्ग के विकीर्ण की लंबाई 25cm है, तो इस वर्ग का परिमाप है:
A. 100√(2 )cm
B. 50√(2 )cm
C. 50/√(2 )cm
D. 100 cm
25. बहुभुज की तुलना में हिस्टोग्राम का अधिक उपयुक्त लाभ कौन सा है?
A. प्रत्येक आयत वितरण में स्पस्ट रूप से अलग वर्ग (क्लास) को दर्शाता है।
B. आवृत्ति बहुभुज, अपने हिस्टोग्राम की तुलना में सरल है।
C. आवृत्ति बहुभुज डाटा पैटर्न की रुपरेखा को अधिक स्पष्ट रूप से दिखाती है।
D. अन्य सभी आयतो के संबंध में प्रत्येक आयत का क्षेत्रफल उस वर्ग (क्लास) से संबंधित अवलोकनों की कुल संख्या का समानुपात नहीं दिखाता है।
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