kerala PSC staff Nurse Exam Previous 2007 question papers Download pdf 100

kearala psc nursing exam previous year paper

Kerala PSC Previous Year (2007) Staff Nurse Exam Paper :- Hello Dear Nursing Student, Are you preparing for the examination of the nursing staff? We provide material of nursing exam. If you visit our website on a regular basis, it will prove to be beneficial for you as we update all the information related to nursing exams to you.

You can find all the old question papers here. E.g., RPSC‘s old nursing question paper, PBSC, SSB staff nurse exam syllabus and question paper, RUHS, Kerala PSC Nursing Exam Model Question Paper, Question and Answers Quiz, AIIMS Model Question Paper etc .

Today, we have provided the old papers of Kerala PSC 2007 for preparing for the best course of nursing students. By solving all these questions, you will get a good experience which will help you in all the upcoming government nursing exams.

kerala psc staff nurse question papers and answers previous year

1. ……..is the inflammation of the tongue:
A. Gingivitis
B. Gastritis
C. Glossitis
D. Parotitis

2. Heat regulating center is:
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Central cortex

3. position used for giving enema:
A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Lithotomy

4. Strength of normal saline is:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 0.45%
D. 0.9%

5. An agent that has the power to kill microorganisms:
A. Bacteriocide
B. Antiseptic
C. Bacteriostat
D. Disinfectant

6. 1 gm of fat give calories of heat:
A. 10
B. 4
C. 2
D. 9

7. Strength of savlon for disinfecting thermometer
is:
A. 1:30
B. 1:20
C. 1:40
D. 1:10

8. Reaction of normal urine is:
A. Addic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Alkaline

9. Loss of appetite is termed as:
A. Dyspepsia
B. Dysphagia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea

10. Amount of solution administered for evacuant enema for adults:
A. 250-500 ml
B. 500-1000ml
C. 1000-1500 ml
D. 1500-2000 ml

11. The temperature of the water used for tepid sponging is:
A. 65-85 °F
B. 85-100 °F
C. 100-105 °F
D. 105-110 °F

12. One pint is equal to:
A. 250 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 1000 ml

13. Size of needle for intramuscular injection:
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-23 gauge
C. 24-25 gauge
D. 26-27 gauge

14. Rate of oxygen administration through nasal catheter:
A. 0.5-1 liter
B. 1-2 liter
C. 2-4 liter
D. 4-6 liter

15. Instrument used to examine the rectum:
A. Autoscope
B. Proctoscope
C. Endoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope

16. Florence Nightingale was bom on:
A. January 12
B. April 12
C. March 5
D. May 12

17. Drugs used to induce vomiting is:
A. Emetic
B. Antiemetic
C. Pyretics
D. Antipyretics

18. Acetic acid is used for testing urine for:
A. Sugar
B. Acetate
C. Albumin
D. Bile salts

19. Enema given to destry or expel the worms from the intestine:
A. Astringent enema
B. Anthelmintic enema
C. Purgative enema
D. Carminative enema

20. Tte important person in the hospital:
A. Doctor
B. Nurse
C. Patient
D. Technician

21. Exanimation with the help of stethoscope is called:
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection

22. When pulse rate is less than 60 per minute it is called :
A. Bradycardia
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea

23. Lock jaw develops in:
A. Typhoid
B. Tetanus
C. Meningitis
D. Diphtheria

24. The process of incising the ear to promote drainage is called:
A. Trephining
B. Mobilization
C. Myringotomy
D. Fenestration

25. The most common complication during the first 24 hours following an amputation:
A. Infection
B. Flexion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sloughing of the sutures

kerala psc staff nurse exam question no. 26 to 50

26. The doctor ordered for a 1,00,000 units of penicillin. If there is a vial containing 2,00,000 units diluted in 10 ml. How many ml be given to the patient?
A. 5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1.25 ml
D. 2.5 ml

27. Profuse menstrual flow during her period is called:
A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea

28. The most serious complication fracture is:
A. Infection
B. Fat embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Air embolism

29. Buck’s extension is a method of:
A. Skin traction
B. Skin grafting
C. Skeletal traction
D. Bom grafting

30. The incubation period of chickenpox is:
A. 12-21 days
B. 1-7 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 3 weeks-1 month

31. Schick test is used for the determination of person’s susceptibility to:
A. Scarlet fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever

32. Which of those effects is expected following the administration of a mydriatic medication?
A. Dilatation of the pupils
B. Improved power of accommodation
C. Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
D. Increased drainage of the aqueous humor

33. Common type of fracture in children:
A. Simple fracture
B. Collis fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Complicated fracture

34. The most important point in nursing care of a patient after tracheostomy is:
A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Maintenance of intake output
C. Oxygen administration
D. Suctioning

35. Quickening takes place between:
A. 10th and 16th week
B. 16th and 20th week
C. 20th and 24th week
D. After 24th week

36. The diuretic phase begins in bums within:
A. 48-72 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 36-48 hours
D. 24-36 hours

37. The main side effect of streptomycin is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Blood dyscrasias
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

38. Vector of malaria is:
A. Female culex mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Male culex mosquito
D. Male anopheles mosquito

39. Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of.
A. Iron
B. Thiamine
C. Acetic acid
D. Folic acid

40. The normal serum bilirubin is:
A. 0.1-1 mg/dl
B. 2-4 mg/di
C. 1.5-3.5 mg/dl
D. 10-12 mg/dl

41. The symptom of enlarged prostrate include.
A. Pyuria
B. Difficulty in micturition
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

42. A degenerative disease of tbe brain associated with liver failure:
A. Uremia
B. Diabetic coma
C. Septicemia
D. Hepatic coma

43. Severe pain occur in the right quad- 50. rant of the abdomen radiating the back right shoulder:
A. Renal colic
B. Internal colic
C. Biliary colic
D. Abdominal colic

44. To lower the acidity of gastric secretion give:
A. Gelusil
B. Belladona
C. Aspirin
D. Carminative mixture

45 Diabetes mellitus is usually recognized by:
A. Albuminuria
B. Lack of appetite
C. Glycosuria
D. Urea in the urine

46. Tuberculosis of the spine is also called:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Charcot’s disease
C. Erving’s disease
D. Pott’s disease

47. Nitroglycerine is given sublingually to relieve pain by vasodilatation of:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Aortic artery
D. Carotid artery

48. The cause of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver is:
A. General fluid imbalance
B. Portal obstruction
C. Kidney trouble
D. All the above

49. Dr Salk discovered a vaccine for the prevention
of:
A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Smallpox
D. Tetanus

50. Pneumothorax is the condition in which there is:
A. Water in the visceral space
B. Air in the visceral space
C. Water in the pleural space
D. Air in the pleural space

kerala psc staff nurse question papers and answers pdf no. 51 to 75

51.The cause of anemia in renal failure is
A. Erythropoietin deficiency
B. Repeated hemodialysis
C. Excessive use of diuretics
D.Restriction of protein in the diet

52. Group ‘O’ patients can receive blood belonging to group:
A. O
B. B
C. A
D. AB

53. Xerophthalmia is due to deficiency of
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A

54. Best therapeutic measure for empyema is:
A. Chest drainage
B. Postural drainage
C. Breathing exercise
D. Fowler’s position

55. Allergen causes:
A. Bronchitis
B. Asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pneumonia

56. Serum cholesterol level will be elevated in case of:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cretinism
D. Diabetes

57. Normal bleeding time is:
A. 1-3 mts
B. 6-10 mts
C. 3-6 mts
D. 10-12 mts

58. Excessive salivation and drooling is seen in:
A. Esophageal atresia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Omphalocele
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula

59.Koplik’s spot is seen is:
A. Chickenpox
B. Meales
C. Mumps
D. Smallpox

60. The bilirubin encephalopathy due to high concentration of indirect bilirubin on brain and basal ganglia in the neonatal period is:
A. Status epileptics
B. Kerning’s sign
C. Kemicterus
D. Jaundice

61. Diabetes insipidus is caused by:
A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin metabolism
C. Antidiuretic hormone
D. Carbohydrate metabolism

62. A congenital hemolytic disease caused by Rh incompatibility is:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Erythroblastosis felalis
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Jaundice

63. On an average, the normal infant triples theirbirth
weight when they reach the age approximately?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months

64. A nurse is assisting with the care of a child receiving oxygen by cannula. In what way it may differ from the way it is normally administering an adult:
A. The oxygen need not be humidified before administering to a child
B. The cannula for a child has only one nasal prong
C. The amount of oxygen administered to a child should be less than the amount administered to an adult
D. The technique used for this therapy is same for an adult and child

65. The commonest type of jaundice in newborn:
A. Hemolytic
B. Physiological
C. Obstructive
D. Hepatogenic

66. The most common cause of heart disease in
adolescence or young adult is:
A. Rheumatic fever disease
B. Congenital heart
C. Anaemia
D. Melanization

67. Manifestation of anger in children:
A. Thumb sucking
B. Temper tantrum
C. Nightmare
D. Regression

68. Kwashiorkor is developed due to lack of:
A. Protein
B. Calories
C. Fat
D. Protein and calories

69. Accidents are the largest single cause of mortality and disability between the age of:
A. 1-4 years
B. 5-7 years
C. 9-10 years
D. 10 years onwards

70. One of the following drug is not an anticonvulsant:
A. Diazepam
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Penicillin

71. Increased concentration of oxygen in capillaries causing vasoconstriction dilated vision of eyes is seen in:
A. Conjunctitities
B. Cataract
C. Strabismus
D. Rctrolentral fibroplasias

72. Liver enzymes which converts lipid soluble bilirubin:
A. Low density lipoprotein
B. Acetyle choline
C. Glucoronyl transferase
D. High density lipoprotein

73. Expected weight of a child at one year whose brith weight was 3.5 kg would be:
A. 7.5 kg
B. 12.5 kg
C. 11.5 kg
D. 10.5 kg

74. The disease transferred through contact is called:
A. Communicable disease
B. Infectious disease
C. Epidemic disease
D. Contagious disease

75. The following are examples of live vaccine except;
A. Typhoid
B. Oral polio
C. BCG
D. Measles

kerala psc nursing tutor previous question papers no. 76 to 100

76. A substance which suppress or neutralize bad odors is called:
A. Deodorant
B. Antiseptic
C. Disinfectant
D. Antibiotic

77. Poliomyelitis is:
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Spirochetal infection

78. Rabies is a fatal viral disease of:
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Muscular system
C. Central nervous system
D. Skeletal system

79. A childhood psychiatric disorder characterised by abnormalities in communicable and social interaction and by restricted repeated activities and interests:
A. Phobia
B. Obsession
C. Autism
D. Illusion

80. Misperception of external stimuli is called.
A. Phobia
B. Hallucination
C. Addiction
D. Illusion

81. A syndrome in which the central features are overactivity mood change and self important ideas: .
A. Mania
B. Schizophn
C. Depression
D. Halluo

82. Voltage of current applied for ECT is-
A. 35-75 volts
B. 75-IOO vote
C. 75-120 volts
100-150 vdb

83. An artificially induced stage in which the person is relaxed and unusually unconscious:
A. Phobia
B. Play therapy
C. Epilepsy
D. Hypnosis

84. Senile dementia occurs during:
A. childhood
B. Teenage
C. Adult
D. Old age

85. The ability to enter into the life of another person to accuratcly perceive his current feeling and to communicate this feeling to the patient is:
A. Sympathy
B. Empathy
C. Self disclosure
D. Role playing

86. Weight of uterus is:
A. 30 gn1
B. 60 gm
C. 90 gm
D. 120 gm

87. The volume of amniotic fluid at term:
A. 500 ml
B. 750 ml
C. 1000 ml
D. 1250 ml

88. Tobacco is not only is cigarettes but is chewed by many people. Which poisons alkaloid is present in tobacco?
A. Lead
B. Nicotine
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine

89. After blood circulation stops, how long does the brain function?
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 10 minutes

90. At what age does our brain stop further growth?
A. After 5 years
B. After 10 years
C. After 15 years
D. After 20 years

91. How many bones are present in the entire framework of the human skeleton?
A. 106
B. 206
C. 306
D. 406

92. How many chromosomes are found in a cell of human being?
A. 23
B. 28
C. 46
D. 48

93. Which part of the heart is responsible for circulating blood through the lungs?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Right atrium

94. When the lens of the eyes become cloudy and opaque, the condition is known as:
A. Glaucoma
B. Long sightedness
C. Cataract
D. Short sightedness

95. Which refers to the treatment of mental disease with the help of electric shock?
A. Electroconvulsive therapy
B. Electroencephalography
C. Electrocardiography
D. Electric wave

96. Which term is applied for the sensation of noise as roaring or ringing in the ears?
A. Tinnitus
B. Tatanus
C. Murmur
D. Peristalsis

97. Paralysis of the lower half of the torso and of both legs:
A. Quadriplegia
B. Hemiplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. Paralysis of lower extremity

98. Which test is used to detect typhoid?
A. Widal test
B. Millard’s test
C. Kahn test
D. Rorschach test

99. Obstruction of the artery or vein by a clot of blood:
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Phlebitis

100. What should be the duration of full term pregnancy?
A. 250 days
B. 280 days
C. 300 days
D. 310 days

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All Answers 1 to 100

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. B 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. C
22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. B
29. A 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. A 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. D
43. C 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B
50. D 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. B
57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. C 62. B 63. B
64. C 65. B 66. A 67. B 68. A 69. A 70. D
71. D 72. C 73. D 74. D 75. A 76. A 77. B
78. C 79. C 80. D 81. A 82. C 83. D 84. D
85. B 86. B 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. C 91. B
92. C 93. D 94. C 95. A 96. A 97. C 98. A
99. A 100. B

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