Diploma in operation theatre technology question paper

Operation Theatre Technician Questions and Answer

Candidates who are going to start preparation for Operation Theater Technician Exam, check Exam Question Pattern, diploma in operation theatre technology question paper & Syllabus details before going to OT Technician Exam. Before appearing for the exam read Operation Theatre Technician Questions and Answers (MCQs). Here we have provided the OT Assistant Exam Model Question Papers and Study Material to help the applicants in their exam preparation.
So, check all the relevant details like the given exam pattern and the type of questions asked in the exam. Candidates can find the respective download links for Operation Theater Technician Previous Papers PDF.

diploma in operation theatre technology/Technician Questions and Answer

Operation theatre technician MCQ questions

MCQs 1. Traction is applied directly to the bone using pins under aseptic precautions
A. Skin traction
B. Skeletal traction
C. Pelvic traction
D. Head traction

(B) Skeletal traction

MCQs 2. The act of manually compressing the heart and ventilating lungs in the event of cardiac arrest is
A. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
B. Defibrillation
C. Mechanical Ventilation
D. Cardiac pacing

(A) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

MCQs 3. The ideal method of opening the airway of a patient in cardiac arrest who is suspected to have a cervical spine injury
A. Head tilt, chin lift
B. Jaw thrust
C. Abdominal thrust
D. Finger sweep

(B) Jaw thrust

MCQs 4. A non-invasive method of estimating arterial oxygen
A. A B. G. analysis
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Blood examination
D. Pulmonary function test

(B) Pulse oximetry

MCQs 5. Position preferred for gynaecological examination
A. Anaemia
B. Polycythaemia
C. Leukaemia
D. Positioning

(C) Leukaemia

MCQs 6. For the examination of the rectum, which is the most suitable position
A. Lithotomy position
B. Knee chest position
C. Supine position
D. Prone position

(B) Knee chest position

MCQs 7. Moving a point away from the body is called
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. Circumduction
D. Rotation

(B) Abduction

MCQs 8. Sigmoidoscopy is done in
A. Fowler’s position
B. Lithotomy Position
C. Knee chart position
D. Prone position

(C) Knee chart position

MCQs 9. The period between exposure to a pathogenic organism and onset of symptoms of the disease (diploma in operation theatre technology question paper)
A. window period
B. prodromal period
C. incubation period
D. None of the above

(C) incubation period

MCQs 10. Devices used to raise the foot or head end of the patent bed are formed
A. Sandbags
B. Bed cradle
C. Backrest
D. Bed blocks

(B) Bed cradle

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OT technician’s previous year’s question paper

MCQs 11. The definitive treatment for life-threatening arrhythmia, ventricular fibrillation, and pulseless ventricular tachycardia
A. Defibrillation
B. Cardiac Massage
C. Thrombolysis
D. Angioplasty

(A) Defibrillation

MCQs 12. An emergency procedure for people in cardiac arrest is
A. C.P.R.
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Suctioning
D. Endotracheal intubation

(A) C.P.R.

MCQs 13. A Capnography monitor is a device that measures the level of
A. Oxygen
B. etCo2
C. Electrolytes
D. E.C.G

(B) etCO2

MCQs 14. Surgically created opening in front of the neck as an emergency measure to relieve airway obstruction
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Tracheostomy
C. Oesophagostomy
D. Thyroidectomy

(B) Tracheostomy

MCQs 15. Glasgow coma Scale has all except
A. verbal response
B. Motor response
C. Serviory impairment
D. Eye-opening

(C) Serviory impairment

MCQs 16. Snellen’s chart is ended to test
A. Vision
B. Oedema
C. Refraction
D. Colour-blindness

(A) Vision

MCQs 17. The term anaesthesia means
A. Sensation
B. no sensation
C. pain
D. no pain

(B) no sensation

MCQs 18. Anaesthesia is very suitable for surgeries involving lower parts of the body
A. General anaesthesia
B. Local anaesthesia
C. Regional block
D. Spinal anaesthesia

(D) Spinal anaesthesia

MCQs 19. Low spinal anaesthesia is usually given for surgeries of perineal and rectal man
A. Caudal block
B. Epidural
C. Perianal block
D. Nerve blockage

(C) Perianal block

MCQs 20. Dengue fever is an infection caused by a virus transmitted by the mosquito
A. Aedes Aegypti
B. Anopheles
C. Culex
D. All of the above

(A) Aedes Aegypti

OT technician exam paper

MCQs 21. The heart is surrounded by an outer covering called
A. pleural membrane
B. meninges
C. pericardium
D. myelin sheath

(C) pericardium

MCQs 22. Cholecystectomy refers to surgical removal of
A. Kidney
B. Ovary
C. Urinary bladder
D. gall bladder

(D) gall bladder

MCQs 23. The method of sterilizing an Operating Room using a gas that destroys microorganisms is called
A. Autoclaving
B. Disinfection
C. Fumigation
D. Infection control

(C) Fumigation

MCQs 24. Area in an OT complex planned for IV lire insertion, preparation of the patient, catheter/RT insertion and has facility for O2 and CPR is called
A. Reception
B. Induction Room
C. Storage Room
D. Holding Room

(D) Holding Room

MCQs 25. The doors of each OT should ideally be
A. made of wood
B. sliding doors
C. hinge doors
D. None of the above

(B) sliding doors

MCQs 26. Suffix denoting surgical renewal of an organ
A. -ectomy
B. –ostomy
C. -scopy
D. -otomy

(A) -ectomy

MCQs 27. Accumulation of blood within the tissues, which clots to form solid swelling
A. haemothorax
B. haemolysis
C. hematoma
D. haemorrhage

(C) hematoma

MCQs 28. Abnormal communication between two hollow organs or between a hollow organ and skin
A. Fascia
B. Fistula
C. Anastomosis
D. Tissue

(B) Fistula

MCQs 29. Proper positioning during surgery is important because
A. prevents prolonged pressure on boney prominences
B. adds comfort
C. appropriate access to the surgical site
D. all of the above

(B) adds comfort

MCQs 30. Patient’s bony prominence at the elbow, heels are supported while positioning using
A. Pillows
B. Donut pads
C. Arm strap
D. Boards

(B) Donut pads

OT technician question paper pdf

MCQs 31. What should be the size of a general surgery O. T.?
A. 18 feet x 20 feet
B. 18 feet x 24 feet
C. 18 feet x 22 feet
D. 16 feet x 20 feet

(A) 18 feet x 20 feet

MCQs 32. Surgery scheduled in advance, as it is not a medical emergency is called anaesthesia The most preferred for caesarean section is
A. General Anaesthesia
B. Spiral Anaesthesia
C. Regional Nerve Block
D. Local Anaesthesia

(B) Spiral Anaesthesia

MCQs 33. A device used to deliver anaesthesia medications in a controlled manner by setting drops per minute is called
A. Boyle’s apparatus
B. Off-pump devices
C. Infusion pump
D. All of the above

(C) Infusion pump

MCQs 34. Identify the term that describes disinfection can kill bacteria
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal
C. Pathogenic
D. Aseptic

(B) Bactericidal

MCQs 35. In preventing and controlling the transmission of infections, the single most important technique is- (diploma in operation theatre technology question paper)
A. hand hygiene
B. use of disposable gloves
C. use of isolation precaution
D. sterilization

(A) hand hygiene

MCQs 36. The absence of pathogenic (disease-producing) microorganisms is called
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Asepsis
D. Bacteriostatic

(C) Asepsis

MCQs 37. A type of hospital-acquired infection from a diagnosis or therapeutic procedure is termed
A. nosocomial infection
B. iatrogenic infection
C. airborne infection
D. opportunistic infection

(B) iatrogenic infection

MCQs 38. Microorganisms that reside on the surface and deep layers of skin is saliva and oral mucosa and in gastro interlineal and genitor urinary tracts that do not cause disease
A. Pathogen
B. Vector
C. Normal flora
D. Phagocyte

(C) Normal flora

MCQs 39. When a patient is on droplet infection precaution, what should the patient and others wear before he is transported?
A. mask
B. gown
C. gloves
D. goggles

(A) mask

MCQs 40. Immunity obtained as a result of experience illness is called
A. Active, natural immunity
B. passive natural immunity
C. Active acquired immunity
D. Passively acquired immunity

(A) Active, natural immunity

Diploma in OT technology question paper

MCQs 41. Which device could be used when place placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
A. shoulder roll
B. chart roll
C. bean bag
D. axillaries roll

(A) shoulder roll

MCQs 42. Which of the following is MOST resistant to the sterilization process?
A. Virus
B. Spore
C. Spirochete
D. Fungus

(B) Spore

MCQs 43. Immediately before haemorrhoidectomy which of the following procedures might be performed on the patient in the operating room?
A. Cystoscopy
B. Culdoscopy
C. Proctoscopy
D. laparoscopy

(C) Proctoscopy

MCQs 44. Which of the following is a chemical sterilant usually used for sharp instruments?
A. alcohol
B. glutaraldehyde
C. Merthiolate
D. sodium hypochlorite

(B) glutaraldehyde

MCQs 45. What is the recommended temperature in an operating room?
A. 15 – 19ºC
B. 20 – 24ºC
C. 25 – 29ºC
D. 30 – 34ºC

(B) 20 – 24ºC

MCQs 46. Which of the following increases air contamination in the operating room?
A. Restricting air traffic in and out
B. damp dusting with germicidal solution
C. maintaining air pressure lower than the outside hall
D. using pneumatic surgical equipment

(C) maintaining air pressure lower than the outside hall

MCQs 47. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?
A. tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. cold, clammy skin
D. increased respiration

(B) hypertension

MCQs 48. Surgical removal of the uterus is called.
A. gastrectomy
C. cholecystectomy
C. colectomy
D. hysterectomy

(D) hysterectomy

MCQs 49. An example of an opioid analgesic is
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Fentanyl

(D) Fentanyl

MCQs 50. Gamma knife is used in surgery of
A. Abdomen
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Heart

(B) Brain

Diploma in operation theatre technician question paper

MCQs 51. System of storage and transport of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to actual vaccination, the site is called
A. Cold chain
B. Deep freeze
C. Cold room
D. Vaccine container

(A) Cold chain

MCQs 52. Mantoux test is done to diagnose
A. Diphtheria
B. AIDS
C. Tuberculosis
D. Measles

(C) Tuberculosis

MCQs 53. The term that refers to the presence of stones in the urinary tract is
A. Urolithiasis
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Ureter ectasis

(A) Urolithiasis

MCQs 54. Surgical Removal of the entire lung is called: (diploma in operation theatre technology question paper)
A. Lobectomy
B. Pneumonectomy
C. Pleurectomy
D. Segmentectomy

(B) Pneumonectomy

MCQs 55. Tiny air sacs in the lungs
A. Bronchus
B. Bronchioles
C. Alveoli
D. Glottis

(C) Alveoli

MCQs 56. Antibiotic drug invented by Alexander Fleming
A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin
C. Aminoglycosides
D. None of the above

(B) Penicillin

MCQs 57. Reduced level of Sodium in the blood causes an electrolyte imbalance called
A. hypovolemia
B. hyponatremia
C. hypokalaemia
D. hypocalcaemia

(B) hyponatremia

MCQs 58. Bluish discolouration of the skin and mucous membranes
A. cyanosis
B. ecchymosis
C. ischaemic
D. erythema

(A) cyanosis

MCQs 59. Low blood glucose level (less than 60 mg/dl) is called
A. hypotension
B. hypoglycaemia
C. hypovolemia
D. hypoxemia

(B) hypoglycaemia

MCQs 60. The process of removing all the microorganisms along with their spores is called
A. disinfection
B. fumigation
C. sterilization
D. isolation

(C) sterilization

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